Google IT Support Professional Certificate Answers

€30
1 rating

Google IT Support Professional Certificate Answers


Whether you’re just getting started or want to take the next step in the high-growth field of IT, professional certificates from Google can help you gain in-demand skills. You’ll learn about troubleshooting, customer support, system administration, Python and more.

In both small businesses and large organizations, IT support involves troubleshooting and problem solving to help computers and networks run smoothly, while providing great customer service along the way.

This certification is part of Google Career Certificates .

Complete a Google Career Certificate to get exclusive access to CareerCircle, which offers free 1-on-1 coaching, interview and career support, and a job board to connect directly with employers, including over 150 companies in the Google Career Certificates Employer Consortium.


Language: English


Certificate URLs:

grow.google/certificates/it-support

coursera.org/google-certificates/it-support-certificate

 

Questions:


Course 1 – Technical Support Fundamentals

 

Week 1 – Introduction to IT

 

How to Count in Binary

 

In this activity, you will use the tool below to convert a decimal number into binary form.

Remember, in binary, the value is considered to be “ON” when a 1 is used. When a 0 is used, the value is considered to be “OFF.”

Click the binary bits necessary to compute the decimal value on the left column. There are 10 exercises to complete.

For example, the picture below represents the number 3 in binary.

When you're done, click the "Check Answers" button. To submit this quiz for a grade, close the full screen quiz and click the "Submit Quiz" button.

 

Quiz consideration:

  1. To complete the quiz, you will need to get 100% accuracy.
  2. If you choose to try the quiz again, make sure to click the “Try Again” button before continuing. If not, the plugin will allow you to practice the quiz but will not allow you to submit your grade.
  3. When you’re done, make sure you have closed the fullscreen quiz and click the “Submit Quiz” button to earn a grade.

Good luck!

 

Assemble a Computer

 

In this quiz, you will assemble a computer virtually by dragging-and-dropping the components to the corresponding  sections.

In the CPU section, you will need to place the 4 items in the correct order, from bottom to top (as shown in the picture below), as if it were a physical computer.

Click the "Check" button to check your answers. Correct placements will be outlined in green, and incorrect placements will be outlined in red. If you've made a mistake, edit your placements or click the arrow to reset all placements and try again. When you're done, click the "Submit" button for a grade.

Quiz consideration:

  1. To select components, drag and drop or click inside the square and choose the appropriate component from the list.
  1. When dropping the component into place, be sure to have a white line outlining the place where you are dropping (see picture below).
  1. To complete the quiz, you will need to get 100% accuracy.
  2. If you choose to try the quiz again,click the “Try Again” button before continuing. If not, the plugin will allow you to practice the quiz but will not allow you to submit your grade.
  3.  When you’re done, make sure you have closed the fullscreen quiz and click the “Submit Quiz” button to earn a grade.

Good luck!

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AnL8yGT6eE4

 

  1. How many possible values can we have with the 8 bits in a byte?
  • 256
  • 127
  • 144
  • 8

 

  1. What is the highest decimal value a byte can represent?
  • 1
  • 256
  • 255
  • Any number

 

  1. Why did UTF-8 replace the ASCII character-encoding standard?
  • UTF-8 only uses 128 values.
  • UTF-8 can store a character in more than one byte.
  • ASCII can store a character in more than one byte.
  • ASCII can store emojis.

 

  1. What is 10101010 in decimal format? Please use this Binary Table to find the answer.
  • 48
  • 170
  • 200
  • 160

 

  1. What is 45 in binary form? Please use this Binary Table to find the answer.
  • 01001001
  • 00101101
  • 10000010
  • 00111011

 

  1. What does the hardware layer in computer architecture include?
  • Operating system
  • Software applications
  • Physical components of a computer
  • How the computer is maintained, operated, and programmed

 

  1. What are the four main layers of computer architecture?
  • Hardware, Operating System, Software, User 
  • Hardware, Windows, Software, User
  • Computer, Operating System, Software, User
  • Binary, Hardware, Operating System, Software

 

  1. Which layer deals with how humans interact with computers?
  • Operating System
  • Software
  • User
  • Hardware

 

  1. What’s a critical aspect of working as an IT support professional?
  • Designing and creating complex programs
  • The human element
  • Building computers
  • Understanding how operating systems work

 

Week 2 – Hardware

 

The Modern Computer

 

  1. Programs are copied into the __ for the CPU to read.
  • MCC
  • RAM
  • Register
  • EDB

 

  1. Which component holds everything in place and is sometimes referred to as the foundation of a computer?
  • Power supply
  • Motherboard
  • RAM
  • CPU

 

3.Which component functions as the computer’s short-term memory?

  • Hard drive
  • Motherboard
  • RAM
  • CPU

 

  1. What serves as the bridge between the RAM and the CPU?
  • Power supply
  • MCC
  • Hard drive
  • EDB

 

  1. What does overclocking mean?
  • Resetting the clocks on computers after a power outage
  • The computer’s time zone is ahead of the local time zone
  • Working overtime
  • Exceeding the number of clock cycles on a CPU

 

Components

 

  1. What will happen if you plug in a 220v appliance into a 120v outlet?
  • The appliance could get damaged
  • The outlet could get damaged
  • The appliance will charge at a slower rate
  • Nothing will happen

 

  1. What are two common types of CPU sockets?
  • Qualcomm and LGA
  • LGA and PGA
  • Intel and AMD
  • AMD and PGA

 

  1. What is the most common form factor for motherboards?
  • Peripherals
  • I/O
  • ATX
  • PCI Express

 

  1. Which characteristics differentiate a Solid State Drive (SSD) from a Hard Disk Drive (HDD)? Select all that apply.
  • High RPMs
  • Smaller form factor
  • Non-moving parts
  • Uses Disk Platters

 

Starting It Up

 

  1. What function does the POST perform in a computer?
  • Tells the CPU how to run individual devices
  • Stores the BIOS
  • Figures out what hardware is on the computer and makes sure it is running properly
  • Stores basic data like the date and the startup method.

 

  1. What function does the BIOS perform?
  • Initializes hardware and loads up drivers
  • Installs drivers
  • Keeps data when the power is turned off
  • Stores temporary data while the computer is on

 

  1. Where are the BIOS settings stored?
  • Hard drive
  • CMOS
  • RAM
  • Flash drive

 

  1. What function does a driver perform on the computer?
  • Stores basic data about the computer like the date, time, and startup methods
  • Stores the BIOS for the motherboard
  • Initializes the computer and gets it up and running
  • Teaches the CPU how to run an external device

 

Week 3 – Operating System

 

What is an Operating System?

 

  1. What are the two main parts that make up an operating system?
  • Users and Software
  • Kernel and Userspace
  • Windows and Mac
  • Kernel and Packages

 

  1. What are the main components of file management? Check all that apply.
  • File system
  • File data
  • Metadata
  • NTFS

 

  1. What is the last step in booting a computer?
  • Execute the bootloader.
  • Load up drivers.
  • Perform a POST.
  • User space is launched.

 

  1. Which of these is a GUI? Check all that apply.
  • BASH
  • MS-DOS
  • iOS
  • Chrome OS

 

  1. Which of these are considered I/O devices? Check all that apply.
  • Speakers
  • CPU
  • Webcams
  • Monitors

 

Installing an Operating System

 

  1. True or false: If you have a 32-bit CPU architecture, it's recommended to use a 64-bit operating system.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. If you want to boot into a USB drive, how do you change your boot settings?
  • Login to the machine.
  • Replace the CPU.
  • Go into the BIOS settings and change the boot settings
  • Wipe the computer.

 

  1. What is the file manager in macOS called?
  • Finder
  • File Explorer
  • Konqueror
  • Midnight Commander

 

  1. What command can you use to create a file using bash?
  • cat
  • ls
  • touch
  • mkfile

 

  1. A ____ is an emulation of a physical machine.
  • BIOS
  • virtual machine
  • driver
  • kernel

 

Week 4 – Networking

 

Which group manages the registration of domain names?

  • Web Registrar
  • DNS
  • ICANN
  • ISP

 

What was the biggest problem with the earliest version of the Internet in the late 1960s?

  • Computers were too big and bulky for accessing the Internet.
  • The TCP/IP protocol could only be used in universities, governments, and businesses.
  • Networks couldn't talk to each other.
  • There was no way to remotely access any computer.

 

Limitations of the Internet

 

  1. There are 4 bytes in an IPv4 address. What is the highest possible decimal value for one byte?
  • 256
  • 512
  • 128
  • 255

 

  1. Which of the following protocols is the primary infrastructure that creates the Internet?
  • TCP/IP
  • DNS
  • HTML
  • NAT

 

  1. What is the limitation of the IPv4 protocol?
  • Does not have any limitations.
  • It’s a slow protocol.
  • It’s obsolete.
  • Its maximum number of IP addresses has been reached.

 

  1. What invention allows people to share more information than just text on the internet?
  • TCP/IP
  • IPv4
  • NAT
  • The World Wide Web

 

  1. How have the IPv4 limitations been solved? (select all that apply)
  • By using Network Address Translation
  • By implementing the IPv6 protocol
  • By creating more IPv4 address
  • By using DNS

 

Networking

  1. True or false: You can create a network with two computers.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. Which of these addresses identify a computer on the network?
  • WWW and IP addresses
  • ISPs and IP addresses
  • AC address and IP address
  • MAC address and IP address

 

  1. What is a networking stack?
  • Radios and antennas that connect to wireless networks.
  • A set of hardware or software that provides networking infrastructure for a computer.
  • A tool that connects lots of different devices together and helps route network traffic.
  • Cables containing glass fibers that move data through light.

 

  1. Which protocol is responsible for delivering packets to the right computers?
  • FTP
  • HTTP
  • TCP
  • IP

 

  1. What type of address do computers use to find something on a network?
  • IP address
  • MAC address
  • ISP address
  • URL address

 

  1. You want to register the domain name ABCcompany.org, but the registration service is not allowing you to do that. What's the most likely reason for this?
  • You are not the legal owner of ABC Company.
  • This domain name is already registered to someone else.
  • Domain names must end in “.com”.
  • Domain names must be all in lowercase.

 

  1. What was the name of the earliest version of the Internet?
  • World Wide Web
  • TCP/IP Network
  • ARPANET
  • NAT

 

  1. You need to update your router settings, so you log into the administration panel, whose Internet Protocol (IP) address is 192.168.0.1. Which IP version is this?
  • IPv6
  • IPv1
  • IPv2
  • IPv4

 

  1. Which problem does IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6) help to solve?
  • Internet Protocol versions prior to version 6 haven’t achieved widespread use.
  • There are less than 4.3 billion IPv4 addresses, which has already been exceeded with existing websites.
  • IPv5 is an outdated protocol version with insufficient security safeguards.
  • Companies waste hundreds of public IP addresses. With IPv6, they can use just one IP address.

 

  1. Which concept deals with connecting devices like smart refrigerators and smart thermostats to the internet?
  • HTTP
  • IPv6
  • IoT
  • NAT

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. How many computers do you need to build a network?
  • 20
  • 1
  • 100
  • 2

 

  1. You are having trouble connecting to the Internet, so you call your Service Provider for help. They need to know the permanent unique identifier address of your specific device so they can help troubleshoot it. What address are they asking for?
  • IP address
  • MAC address
  • URL address
  • ISP address

 

  1. What does a router do in Networking? Choose all that apply.
  • A router can only send data to a computer on the same network.
  • A router utilizes network protocols to help determine where to send data packets.
  • A router sends ones and zeros through a beam of light.
  • A router connects devices together and helps direct network traffic.

 

  1. Which protocol handles delivery of information from one network to another?
  • HTTP
  • IP
  • TCP
  • FTP

 

  1. Which one of these translates human readable words to IP addresses for the computer?
  • ICANN
  • URL
  • DNS
  • TCP/IP

 

  1. You're browsing the Web, and type in www.google.com in the address line. Instead of the website, an error screen appears. You type in 216.58.214.4, and the Google website comes up. What's the most likely reason for this?
  • Address line is for the IP address only, not the domain name.
  • There’s a problem with your Internet connection.
  • Web addresses must be entered in lowercase.
  • There’s a problem in your network’s DNS configuration.

 

  1. Which of these can resolve IPv4 address shortages? Choose all that apply.
  • Autonomous Systems
  • Network Address Translation
  • Border Gateway Protocol
  • Using IPv6 addresses

 

  1. How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
  • 128
  • 256
  • 64
  • 32

 

  1. IT networking involves which of these? Choose all that apply.
  • Joining professional networks
  • Designing networks
  • Building networks
  • Managing networks

 

  1. True or false: An IP address is a unique identifier for a computer on a network.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. What does TCP/IP stand for?
  • Transmit Control Protocol and the Intelligence Protocol
  • Transmission Control Protocol and the Interconnection Protocol
  • Transmission Control Protocol and the Internet Protocol
  • Transit Control Protocol and the Internet Protocol

 

  1. Which of these are networking devices? Choose all that apply.
  • Routers
  • Switches
  • TCP
  • Hubs

 

  1. What is www.google.com an example of?
  • ISP
  • HTTP
  • URL
  • ICANN

 

  1. Concerning IP address shortages, what is the most important difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
  • IPv6 addresses are more secure.
  • There are many, many more potential IPv6 addresses than IPv4 addresses.
  • IPv6 addresses are simpler and therefore easier to remember than IPv4 addresses.
  • It will be less expensive for a company to have multiple IPv6 addresses as compared to IPv4 addresses.

 

  1. You are having trouble connecting to the Internet, so you call your Service Provider for help. They need to know the permanent unique identifier address of your specific device so they can help troubleshoot it. What address are they asking for?
  • MAC address
  • ISP address
  • URL address
  • IP address

 

  1. True or false: The “Internet of Things” is a new internet that human users cannot use.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. What are some examples of IoT (Internet of Things)? Choose all that apply.
  • Refrigerators that keep track of the food and notify you when to buy more
  • Teachers who post assignments for their students on the school website
  • An online car dealership that can provide complete car history using the vehicle identification number
  • Thermostats that turn off the air conditioning when you leave the room

 

Week 5 – Software

 

Introduction to Software

  1. The type of software that can be used for free and is open to modify, share, and distribute is called_______.
  • Open source
  • Coding
  • Programming
  • Commercial software

 

  1. As an IT support specialist, you are required to do which of the following?
  • Check the license agreement of any software before installing.
  • Use binary code to communicate with computers.
  • Install all the software requested by the users.
  • Ensure that your company uses abstraction.

 

  1. What type of software is used to keep the core system running?
  • Web browser
  • Application software
  • System software
  • Software versions

 

  1. Why is basic knowledge of scripting an important tool for IT professionals to have?
  • Initiating Updates
  • Automating basic functions
  • Python Scripting
  • Programming

 

 

  1. _______ is/are a key component to programming, and helped to pave the road that led us to today's modern computing.
  • Interpreters
  • Scrip
  • Binary
  • Compilers

 

Interacting with Software

  1. What command would you use in Ubuntu Linux to get permission to install software?
  • Sudo
  • Apt
  • Install
  • Git

 

 

  1. What command would you use in Ubuntu Linux to install a software package?
  • Run
  • Application
  • B: Execute
  • Apt

 

  1. What file extension does Windows use for executable files?
  • .txt
  • .wav
  • .exe
  • .com

 

  1. What is GIT’s function?
  • Helps keep track of changes made to directories and files
  • Helps computer processes work automatically
  • Contains new features and critical security updates
  • Allows the computer to interact with hardware

 

  1. What is the name of the command button in Windows you click to remove programs?
  • Sudo
  • Delete
  • Uninstall
  • Drop

 

Week 6 – Troubleshooting

 

Documentation - Troubleshooting Best Practices

 

  1. Consider the following scenario: You are working as an IT support specialist and receive a call from a remote user saying they can’t access the company website. After verifying the user as an employee, how would you start trying to solve this problem?
  • Ask the user to clear the cache of the web browser.
  • Ask questions and gather information to identify the problem.
  • Tell the user it is a virus and ask to run a virus check.
  • Tell the user they need to bring or send the computer to the corporate office for troubleshooting.

 

  1. _______ is how the “Isolating the problem” troubleshooting method help us to solve the problem.
  • Understanding the user
  • Diagnosing the problem
  • Acquiring technical knowledge
  • Shrinking the scope of the potential issue

 

  1. What are the basic steps you should follow when troubleshooting a problem?
  • Ask questions, assume the problem, and implement the longest solution to be on the safe side.
  • Reinstall the computer’s OS.
  • Ask questions, isolate the problem, and identify the root cause of the problem.
  • Scan for viruses; iif the problem is not solved, reinstall the computer’s OS.

 

  1. There are 4 basic characteristics that define excellent customer service. Which is the most important?
  • Empathy
  • Velocity
  • Knowledge
  • Humility

 

  1. Consider the following case study:

 

You receive a phone call from a remote user, saying they cannot connect to the company server. The user is in a rush and is frustrated. You take the call and start your interaction with the user. The user, having some computer knowledge, tells you what steps they perform to try to solve the problem. In order to find the root cause, you need to re-try some of the same steps the user performed. Which of the following is the best way to communicate with the user the steps you want to perform?

  • Saying, “Let us start working on your problem. Please do the following steps.”
  • Acknowledging the steps the user did and go radio silence while you evaluate the problem.
  • Saying, “Sorry for inconveniencing you, I know that you already did some of these steps, but in order to find the root cause, I will need you to perform some of them again.”
  • Telling the user you can not trust what they have done and need to start your own troubleshooting.

 

  1. Which of the following is a common pitfall when troubleshooting?
  • Asking too many questions.
  • Documenting the problem.
  • Moving through issues out of habit and without careful thought.
  • Investigating the issue.

 

  1. What is troubleshooting?
  • Using different methods to help the customer.
  • The ability to diagnose and resolve a problem.
  • Finding the root cause of a problem.
  • Asking questions.

 

  1. Consider the following case study:

 

The help desk receives a call from a customer/user with the problem “My system is running too slowly.” Select the best ticket documentation.

  • After making the corresponding question, I found out that the root cause was that the user was using heavy applications at the same time. Ask to close the application not in use.
  • Ask user to reboot computer
  • Root cause found
  • Issue solve

 

  1. Imagine the following scenario: you are an IT support specialist, and a user brings in their laptop to be repaired. They report that since they downloaded an operating system update, their laptop has "frozen." What fast remediation step might you try first?
  • Reboot the device.
  • Remove the CPU.
  • Re-install the operating system.
  • Un-install the operating system update.

 

  1. Imagine this scenario: you are an IT support specialist and a user contacts you over chat about their mobile phone. They report that an app that they've used for weeks now crashes whenever they try to open it. What questions should you ask?
  • Have you used the app since its most recent update?
  • Why they want to use the app.
  • Have you rebooted your mobile phone recently?
  • Have you downloaded any other apps since downloading this one?



 

Customer Service

 

  1. You're doing desktop support, and the company policy is that you can only help with company equipment. A user walks in:

 

Tech: Hi there, how can I help you?

 

User: My computer is really slow, and I can barely use it. Can you help me figure out what's wrong?

 

Tech: It looks like this is a personal computer. Are you talking about your work computer?

 

User: Uh, no, this is the one that I need help with. I figured you’re good with computers, and you could help. My daughter needs it for a school assignment that’s due tomorrow, but it's too slow for her to get anything done.

 

What would you do?

  • Forget about the policy and help them!
  • Tell them you can’t help them and suggest they go to a local tech store for help.
  • Politely tell them that it’s against the company policy, and you can’t help them.
  • Explain why you can’t troubleshoot the issue, per the company policy. But give them some tips on what common issues could be slowing down his computer, and how they might go about fixing them.

 

  1. Situation: You work for a company that requires a visual verification when resetting passwords. The verification doesn't have to be done through your company account. However, you must see the person "live" (not through a picture), so that you can match them to their photo before resetting their account.

 

Scenario: Phone call

Anastasia: Thanks for calling. My name is Anastasia. How can I help you?

Ling: Hi, Anastasia. This is Ling. I need to reset my account password.

Anastasia: Hi, Ling. I’d be happy to help you with that, but first I need to verify your identity. Can you do a video call with me through Skype?

Ling: I can’t get into my work account. That's why I’m calling.

What would you do in this situation? Check all that apply.

  • Offer to set up a video call through Skype, Facetime, or Hangouts.
  • Ask the user if they have a personal account to use for Skype.
  • Suggest the user make a video call with you through their phone.
  • Kindly tell them they will have to wait until the next day to meet with someone live.

 

  1. A user needs their password reset. The IT Support Specialist is pulling up the necessary information while the user starts asking a bunch of questions: Why does the password have to have a capital and a symbol? Why can’t I write it down? Why does it change so often? Isn’t this a waste of time?

 

How would you respond to the user?

  • Kindly ask the user to stop asking questions, since you’re trying to solve their problem.
  • Stop what you’re doing and explain to the user that passwords should have numbers and symbols for security purposes, and this is more important than productivity.
  • Let the user know that you’re working on their issue and will be sure to answer all of their questions once you’re done.
  • Ignore the user and keep working on resetting the password, so you don’t lose your place.

 

  1. You receive the following ticket from a user:

My machine is saying I have to reboot, but this is silly. I have a ton of processes running, I don’t want to have to reload everything. This is a waste of time. I’ve included a screenshot of the message. Please advise.

-Aditya Choose the best response

  • Hi Aditya,Thanks for contacting support.Please restart the computer, there are no other options in this case.Regards,Amelia
  • I see that you’re concerned about rebooting your machine.I looked into the screenshot you provided, and it appears the reboot is due to a new program you installed. In order for the program to run, a reboot has to be done.It was a pleasure working with you.Regards,Amelia
  • When installing programs, you need to reboot your machine.
  • Thanks for contacting support. I see that you’re concerned about rebooting your machine.

    Based on the screenshot you provided, it looks like you received the reboot prompt because a new program was installed. In order for the program to start working, you’ll need to reboot your machine. Is it possible to save your commands beforehand, so that you can get to them again?

    Please let me know if there is anything further that I can help you with.

    Regards,

    Amelia

15.Situacion: You are working as an IT support specialist and receive the following request thorough chat:

Name: Yuki Saitō

Customer number: 674213

Issue: I need more bandwidth

Chat log:

Mia: Hi Yuki, how are you today? I see that you are concerned about needing more bandwidth. I’d be happy to help.

Yuki: Thanks, I really need it!

Mia: Can I ask what you mean by “needing more bandwidth?”

Yuki: I mean that everytime I try to use my computer after lunch, it’s incredibly slow. I think I’m using all the bandwidth in the morning.

What do you do next?

  • Tell the user that you have no control over their bandwidth and politely close the chat.
  • Suggest the user reboot his machine when this happens.
  • Give the user what they want. Increase their bandwidth and move on to the next user.
  • Ask more questions about what programs they’re using.

 

Troubleshooting Best Practices

 

  1. ___________________ should be the first step when troubleshooting
  • Gathering information to identify the problem by asking the user questions
  • Asking the user to restart the computer
  • Telling the user to run a virus check
  • Asking the user to clear the web browser cache

 

  1. _______ is how the “Isolating the problem” troubleshooting method help us to solve the problem.
  • Shrinking the scope of the potential issue
  • Understanding the user
  • Diagnosing the problem
  • Acquiring technical knowledge

 

  1. When troubleshooting a problem, the main goal should always be _____
  • Guess the problem based on the user’s answers.
  • Asked the user to buy a new computer.
  • Identify the root cause.
  • Reinstall the computer’s OS.

 

  1. Which of the following characteristics is part of great customer service?
  • Being fast.
  • Acknowledging the user.
  • Talking in technical jargon.
  • Keeping quiet while working.

 

  1. Consider the following case study:

You receive a phone call from a remote user, saying they cannot connect to the company server. The user is in a rush and is frustrated. You take the call and start your interaction with the user. The user, having some computer knowledge, tells you what steps they perform to try to solve the problem. In order to find the root cause, you need to re-try some of the same steps the user performed. Which of the following is the best way to communicate with the user the steps you want to perform?

  • Telling the user you can not trust what they have done and need to start your own troubleshooting.
  • Saying, “Sorry for inconveniencing you, I know that you already did some of these steps, but in order to find the root cause, I will need you to perform some of them again.”
  • Saying, “Let us start working on your problem. Please do the following steps.”
  • Acknowledging the steps the user did and go radio silence while you evaluate the problem.

 

  1. ___________ are all-in-one solutions that help you track user issues, communicate with your users, and provide updates.
  • Ticketing or bug systems
  • Procedures
  • Chat rooms
  • Emails to users

 

  1. What is the first thing that should be written in the IT documentation process?
  • A clear and specific description of the problem
  • The user identification.
  • The computer settings.
  • The time and date of the issue.

 

  1. Why is it important to spend extra time investigating the issue?
  • To make the customer happy
  • To find the root cause of the problem.
  • To bill more time.
  • To fix small holes.

 

  1. Sometimes there are multiple options that can be used to isolate a problem. What option should be tried first?
  • Asking the customer to choose.
  • The fastest to implement.
  • Always start by reinstalling the OS.
  • The longest to implement.

 

  1. Scenario: The help desk receives a call from a customer\user with the problem, “My laptop is not turning on.” Select the best ticket documentation.
  • The user connected the laptop to the power supply.
  • After asking the user when was the last time they charged the laptop, it was found the laptop had not been charged in four days. I asked the user to plug-in the laptop to a power outlet and wait at least 5 minutes and try again. The laptop is working fine.
  • Laptop not working. Working now.
  • Issue solved.

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. What is the first step to follow when troubleshooting?
  • Tell the user that you need to keep the computer for troubleshooting.
  • Assume a cause for the problem and try to solve the problem based on the assumption.
  • Ask follow up questions to identify the problem.
  • Ask the user to restart the computer.

 

  1. The “isolating the problem” troubleshooting method tries to ___________
  • Shrink the scope of the potential issue.
  • Recreating the problem
  • Ask the user questions to make them feel part of the solution
  • Expand the area of the problem.

 

  1. There are 4 basic characteristics that define excellent customer service. Which is the most important?
  • Knowledge
  • Being humble
  • Empathy
  • Velocity

 

  1. Consider the following case study:

 

You are an IT support specialist for a computer repair shop. A customer brings their computer and explains their problem. You need to perform some basic troubleshooting steps that take about 30 minutes. Which is the best way to interact with the customer?

  • Ask the customer for their phone number and tell them you will contact them when you are finished.
  • Explain to the customer what needs to be done, the time required to complete it, and give the option to leave the computer or wait at the shop.
  • Start troubleshooting in front of the customer.
  • Take the computer to the back of the shop and start troubleshooting, leaving the customer in the waiting area.

 

  1. Why is it important to document IT issues/problems?
  • Because it is a requirement of the company.
  • To save you time, your company time, and your users time.
  • It helps you audit your steps in case you need to go back and see what you did
  • To keep track of your time.

 

  1. ________________________ is the most common pitfall when troubleshooting.
  • Guessing the solution
  • Using the fastest possible solution
  • Going on autopilot and not finding the root cause of the problem
  • Asking questions and gathering data

 

  1. What troubleshooting method is used if starting from where the problem occurred and working forward from there?
  • Asking questions.
  • Isolating the problem.
  • Start-with-the-quickest-step-first.
  • Follow the cookie crumbs.

 

  1. What is the main benefit of the “Isolating the problem” troubleshooting method?
  • It keeps the problem from happening again.
  • It allows the user to be involved in the solution.
  • It helps shrink the scope of the potential issue.
  • It helps keep the customer happy.

 

  1. Consider the following case study:

 

A user contacts you through chat, saying they are unsuccessfully trying to access the corporate email app. You start troubleshooting and realize what the problem is. What should you do?

  • Immediately start solving the problem. After you finish, you text back, saying the problem was solved.
  • Solve the problem and ignore the user.
  • Tell the user to wait.
  • Notify the user you found the root cause of the problem and how long it will take to solve, and you will let them know when the issue is resolved.

 

  1. What are the main ways we document information in the IT industry?
  • Chat rooms
  • Ticketing or bug systems
  • Procedures and policies
  • Emails to users

 

  1. What is troubleshooting?
  • Using different methods to help the customer.
  • The ability to diagnose and resolve a problem.
  • Finding the root cause of a problem.
  • Asking questions.

 

  1. Consider the following scenario:

 

The help desk receives a call from a customer/user with the following problem: “I’m unable to log-in to my account.” Select the best ticket documentation from the following:

  • I sent the reset link to the customer to generate a new password.
  • User can not log-in to their account.
  • Close.
  • The user reported the error, “I’m unable to log-in to my account”. After confirming the user was typing the username and password correctly, I found out that the user password had expired. I sent the reset link to the customer to generate a new password.

 

  1. What are the basic steps you should follow when troubleshooting a problem?
  • Ask questions, assume the problem, and implement the longest solution to be on the safe side.
  • Scan for viruses; iif the problem is not solved, reinstall the computer’s OS.
  • Reinstall the computer’s OS.
  • Ask questions, isolate the problem, and identify the root cause of the problem.

 

  1. The IT documentation should be: (select all that apply)
  • Clear and concise.
  • Accessible to everyone else in your company.
  • Updated constantly.
  • Only in printed format

 

  1. Which of the following is a common pitfall when troubleshooting?
  • Investigating the issue.
  • Documenting the problem.
  • Moving through issues out of habit and without careful thought.
  • Asking too many questions.

 

  1. Consider the following case study:

 

The help desk receives a call from a customer/user with the problem “My system is running too slowly.” Select the best ticket documentation.

  • Ask user to reboot computer
  • After making the corresponding question, I found out that the root cause was that the user was using heavy applications at the same time. Ask to close the application not in use.
  • Issue solve
  • Root cause found

 

  1. Consider the following scenario: You are working as an IT support specialist and receive a call from a remote user saying they can’t access the company website. After verifying the user as an employee, which should be your first step:
  • Ask questions and gather information to identify the problem.
  • Tell the user it is a virus and ask to run a virus check.
  • Ask the user to clear the cache of the web browser.
  • Tell the user they need to bring or send the computer to the corporate office for troubleshooting.

 

  1. Imagine the following scenario: You are an IT support specialist, and a user brings their computer to be repaired. You have the following conversation:

User: Hi! I have a problem with my laptop. It is totally broken. I think I need a new one.

You: Hi! What is the problem?

User: The laptop does not turn on.

You: Sorry to hear that; let me try. You are right, it is not turning on.

What should be your next step:

  • Replace the laptop’s battery.
  • Ask more questions, and try to identify the root cause of the problem.
  • Tell the user to leave the laptop and wait for your call.
  • Agree with the user and replace the laptop.

 

Course 2 – The Bits and Bytes of Computer Networking

 

Week 1 – Introduction to Networking

 

Layers in Networking Models

 

Let's test your knowledge of the five-layer networking model presented in this course.

This quiz consists of 2 parts:

  1. The first part will test your knowledge of the Networking layers. To do this, drag a layer from the “Available Items” column and drop it in the correct order in the “Network Layers” column. Check your answers. If you make a mistake, click the “Reset” button to try again.
  2. In the second part, match samples of the layers to each Networking layer. To do this, choose an item from the “Available Items” column and match it with the correct layer in the “Network Layers” column. Check your answers. If you make a mistake, click the “Reset” button to try again.

Quiz consideration:

  1. To complete the quiz, you will need to get 100% accuracy on both parts. You can check your answers before submitting.  You can continue to part 2 after you have completed part 1 with 100% accuracy.
  2. If you choose to try the quiz again, make sure to click the “Try Again” button before continuing. If not, the plugin will allow you to practice the quiz, but will not allow you to submit your grade.
  3. When you’re done, make sure you have closed the fullscreen quiz and click the “Submit Quiz” button to earn a grade.

Good luck!

 

Routing Paths and Subnets

Question 1

Let’s see how much you’ve learned about routing paths and subnetting! In this activity, you are given a bunch of source and destination IP address pairs. Your task is to route each of these packets from the correct source network to the correct destination network.

Step 1: You will be presented 8 source and destination IP address pairs in the table below.

Step 2: You will mimic how the packets travel from the source IP address to the destination IP address within the network. Click the network source (the corresponding orange bubble) and click all the networks it needs to use in order to reach the destination network. You will need to click each network in the right order.

Step 3: After you’ve selected the source and destination networks, click the “Check” button. Some of these address pairs may not be represented by the networks available. If that’s the case, click the “Source or destination not present” button. If you make a mistake, click the “Reset” button to try again.

Step 4: Once you have correctly answered a question, move on to the next question by clicking on the next question arrow. There are 8 different questions.

Step 5: After you’ve completed all routing paths listed in the table, close the quiz and click the “Submit Quiz” button for a grade.

 

 

 

TCP/IP

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of a network layer (layer 3) protocol in the five-layer TCP/IP model?
  • IP
  • TCP
  • UDP
  • Ethernet

 

  1. Which of these is an example of something that works on the application layer (layer 5 of the five-layer TCP/IP model)?
  • UDP
  • An ethernet cable
  • A router
  • A browser

 

  1. Which layer of the five layer TCP/IP model deals with cabling and connectors?
  • The physical layer
  • The application layer
  • The transport layer
  • The network layer

 

  1. Which level of the TCP/IP five-layer model does a router operate on?
  • The transport layer
  • The network layer
  • The data link layer
  • The application layer

 

  1. On which layer are Ethernet standards and some wireless technologies operating?
  • The network layer
  • The data link layer
  • The physical layer
  • The transport layer

 

Networking Devices

 

  1. Which of these allows connections from many devices and inspects the contents of ethernet protocol data?
  • A cable
  • A hub
  • A switch
  • A collision domain

 

  1. What does LAN stand for?
  • Local area network
  • Locally available network
  • Large area network
  • Little area network

 

  1. What's a router?
  • A physical layer device that prevents crosstalk
  • A device that knows how to forward data between independent networks.
  • A physical layer device that allows connections for many computers at once
  • A more advanced version of a switch

 

  1. Which of these is a server?
  • A device operating on the data link layer that connects many devices together inspects ethernet protocol data
  • Something providing data to something requesting the data
  • A device that forwards data between multiple networks
  • Something receiving data from something providing data

 

  1. What kind of wiring is in cables that communicate in voltage changes that are received by the receiving device as ones and zeros?
  • Gold
  • Fiber
  • Aluminum
  • Copper

 

The Physical Layer

 

  1. What modulation type is used for computer networks?
  • Line coding
  • Line crimping
  • Simplex communication
  • RJ45

 

  1. What is the difference between full duplex and half duplex?
  • Full duplex allows communications in two directions at the same time; half duplex means that only one side can communicate at a time.
  • Half duplex occurs when hubs are in use; full duplex occurs when switches are in use.
  • Full duplex is slower than half duplex.
  • Full duplex is a form of simplex communications.

 

  1. The ____________ consists of devices and means of transmitting bits across computer networks.
  • modulation
  • physical layer
  • network layer
  • data link layer

 

  1. What is the most common type of cabling used for connecting computing devices?
  • VGA Cable
  • SATA Cable
  • Power Cable
  • Twisted Pair Cable

 

  1. Which of the following are category types of Twisted Pair Ethernet cable? (Select all that apply)
  • Foiled Twisted Pair (FTP).
  • USB cable
  • Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP).
  • Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).

 

The Data Link Layer

 

  1. How many octets are there in a MAC address?
  • 4
  • 5
  • 8
  • 6

 

  1. What address is used for Ethernet broadcasts?
  • FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
  • FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:00
  • 00:00:00:00:00:00
  • 11:11:11:11:11:11

 

  1. What is a cyclical redundancy check?
  • A way for two computers to synchronize their clocks.
  • A technique that allows for multiple logical LANs to operate on the same equipment.
  • A mathematical calculation used to ensure that all data arrived intact.
  • The actual data being transported by an Ethernet frame.

 

  1. Which of the following are ways for transmitting data at the Ethernet level? (Select all that apply)
  • Unicast
  • Duplex
  • Broadcast
  • Multicast

 

  1. Which of the following are parts of an Ethernet frame? (Select all that apply)
  • Data payload
  • EtherType field
  • Broadcast
  • Preamble

 

Networking Basics

 

21 Which protocol provides mechanisms ensuring data is reliably delivered?

  • Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
  • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
  • Internet Protocol (IP)

 

  1. Select the right order of the TCP/IP Five-layer network model.
  • Physical Layer > Data Link Layer > Network Layer > Transport Layer > Application Layer.
  • Physical Layer > Application Layer > Data link Layer > Network Layer > Transport Layer
  • Physical Layer > Network Layer > Data link Layer > Transport Layer > Application Layer
  • Physical Layer > Data link Layer > Transport Layer > Network Layer > Application Layer

 

  1. Which layer in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) model does IP use?
  • Network
  • Physical
  • Transport
  • Data link

 

  1. What type of cable communicates binary data by changing the voltage between two ranges?
  • Copper
  • Fiber
  • Silver
  • Gold

 

  1. What is a network with only a single device at each end of the link called?
  • A point to point connection
  • A twisted pair network
  • A switching hub
  • A collision domain

 

  1. Which device forwards data and operates at layer three of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) model?
  • Client
  • Switch
  • Router
  • Hub

 

  1. Which of the following is something that requests data from a server?
  • Hub
  • Router
  • Client
  • Switch

 

  1. Which type of communication does a telephone use?
  • Full duplex
  • Twisted
  • Half Duplex
  • Simplex

 

  1. Fill in the blank: There will almost always be some troubleshooting data available through_____.
  • Stop LEDs
  • Wire lights
  • Port lights
  • Action LEDs

 

  1. Fill in the blank: The most common data link layer protocol for wired connections is _____.
  • UDP
  • BGP
  • TCP
  • Ethernet

 

  1. What does the letter B represent in a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

 

  • 9
  • 10
  • 15
  • 11

 

  1. Where in an ethernet frame will you find a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) header?
  • Before the EtherType field
  • Frame Check Sequence
  • Preamble
  • Payload

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Which of the following is the first layer of the TCP/IP Five-layer network model.
  • Physical
  • Data link
  • Transport
  • Network

 

  1. When an electrical pulse on one wire is accidentally detected on another nearby wire, this is known as what?
  • Cross Talk
  • Multicast
  • Duplex
  • Preamble

 

  1. Multiple systems try to send data at the same time. The electrical pulses sent across the cable interfere with each other. What type of network segment is being used?
  • Wide Area Network (WAN)
  • Subnet
  • Local Area Network (LAN)
  • Collision domain

 

  1. What device provides emails to devices like laptops and desktop computers?
  • Server
  • Switch
  • Router
  • Hub

 

  1. Fill in the blank: When data flows across a cable in both directions, this is known as_____ communication.
  • Cross talk
  • Duplex
  • Simplex
  • Ethernet

 

  1. Which of these devices contains many network ports, but does no other work than being a container for cable endpoints?
  • Hub
  • Patch Panel
  • Router
  • Switch

 

  1. What is used to determine when the communications channels are clear and when a device is free to transmit data?
  • Internet Protocol (IP)
  • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • Ethernet
  • Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

 

  1. You need to identify the manufacturer of a network interface. Where will you look for this information?
  • The last octet of a Media Access Control (MAC) address
  • The first three octets of a Media Access Control (MAC) address
  • The first octet of a Media Access Control (MAC) address
  • The fourth octet of a Media Access Control (MAC) address

 

  1. What immediately follows the Start Frame Delimiter in an ethernet frame?
  • Destination Media Access Control (MAC) address
  • Payload
  • Frame Check Sequence
  • EtherType field

 

  1. True or false: Fiber cables use pulses of light to represent the ones and zeros of data.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. True or false: Most devices are purely a server or a client.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. A Local Area Network (LAN) uses Category 6 cabling. An issue with a connection results in a network link degradation and only one device can communicate at a time, but information can still go in either direction. What is the connection operating at?
  • Simplex
  • Half Duplex
  • Partial
  • Full Duplex

 

  1. What is the most common plug used with twisted pair network cables?
  • Registered Jack 35
  • Registered Jack 45
  • Registered Jack 11
  • Registered Jack 46

 

  1. Which layer abstracts away the need for any other layers to care about what hardware is in use?
  • Transport
  • Data Link
  • Physical
  • Network

 

  1. Fill in the blank: MAC address stands for ____ address
  • Media Access Control
  • Maximum Allowable Cost
  • Message Authentication Check
  • Memory Access Controller

 

  1. Which layer in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) model is responsible for defining a common way to interpret signals so network devices can communicate?
  • Data link
  • Application
  • Transport
  • Network

 

  1. Which protocol do routers use to determine the optimal path to forward traffic?
  • User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
  • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
  • Internet Protocol (IP)

 

  1. True or false: The TCP provides mechanisms to ensure that data is reliably delivered.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. Which layer of the network model includes specifications for cables and connectors and how signals are sent over these connections?
  • Data link
  • Network
  • Physical
  • Transport

 

  1. You have installed a device at the physical layer. All of the systems you connect to this device will talk to each other at the same time. What have you installed?
  • Client
  • Hub
  • Server
  • Router

 

  1. Which section in an ethernet frame contains the data from higher layers, such as Internet Protocol (IP) and the transport and application layers?
  • Payload
  • Frame Check Sequence
  • Preamble
  • EtherType

 

Week 2 – The Network Layer

 

The Network Layer

 

  1. Please select all of the valid IP addresses. Check all that apply.
  • 8.8.8.8
  • 123.456.123.456
  • 192.168.1.1
  • 257.70.312.49

 

  1. How many IP addresses does a class C network have?
  • 16,777,216 addresses
  • 256 addresses
  • 65,536 addresses
  • 1 address

 

  1. Which IP address class has the first two octets reserved for the network ID and the last two octets for the host ID?
  • Class B
  • Class A
  • Class E
  • Class C addresses

 

  1. The ____ is used to indicate that the datagram is allowed to be fragmented or to indicate that the datagram has already been fragmented.
  • service type field
  • fragmentation offset field
  • total length field
  • flag field

 

  1. The IP address assigned to a device would depend on the _______ it is connected.
  • network
  • ARP
  • MAC addresses
  • IP datagram

 

Subnetting

 

  1. What does CIDR stand for?
  • Classful Identification Routing
  • Class Interconnect Destination Routing
  • Classful Interlink-Destination Routing
  • Classless Inter-Domain Routing

 

  1. Which of the following is a correct form of CIDR notation?
  • 192.168.1.0 + 255.255.255.0
  • 192.168.1.0/24
  • 192.168.1.0:24
  • 192.168.1.0\24

 

  1. How many octets does a subnet mask have?
  • 4
  • 1
  • 3
  • 2

 

  1. Consider the following scenario:

 

Your IP address is 192.168.8.34, and your subnet mask is 255.255.0.0. What part of the subnet mask represents the subnet ID?

  • The last two octets of the subnet mask, 0.0
  • The first two octets of the subnet mask, 255.255
  • 192.168.0.254
  • 255.255.0.1

 

  1. How many possible host IDs do you always lose per network?
  • 2
  • 12
  • 4
  • 8

 

Routing

 

  1. Which of the following are types of Interior Gateway Protocols? (Select all that apply)
  • Link State Routing Protocols
  • Distance-Vector Protocols.
  • Hypertext Transfer Protocol
  • Transmission Control Protocol

 

  1. Who is permitted to use non-routable address space?
  • It’s for testing purposes only
  • The IANA
  • The IETF
  • Anyone

 

  1. A typical routing table may contain which of the following? Check all that apply.
  • Total Hops
  • TTL
  • Destination Network
  • Destination address

 

  1. What is the difference between Interior Gateway Protocols and Exterior Gateway Protocols?
  • Interior gateway protocols share information with public networks. Exterior gateway protocols are used for private networks.
  • Interior Gateway Protocols share information within a single autonomous system. Exterior Gateway Protocols are used for the exchange of information between multiple autonomous systems.
  • Interior gateway protocols share information with multiple autonomous systems. Exterior Gateway Protocols are used for the exchange of information between independent autonomous systems.
  • There is no difference between them.

 

  1. Which of the following are non-routable IP addresses? (Select all that apply)
  • 172.16.0.0/12
  • 192.168.0.0/16
  • 9.0.0.0
  • 10.0.0.0/8

 

The Network Layer

 

  1. No matter where a device is used, what address will stay the same regardless of the network it is attached to?
  • Physical, or MAC, address
  • Dynamic IP address
  • Static IP address
  • EIN serial

 

  1. There are ____ octets in an IP address.
  • 16
  • 8
  • 2
  • 4

 

  1. What is the process of taking a single IP datagram and splitting it up into several smaller datagrams called?
  • Fragmentation
  • Clustering
  • NAT firewall
  • Load balancing

 

  1. In a Class A address, the possible values for the first octet are:
  • 0 through 127
  • 255 through 420
  • 0 through 255
  • 128 through 199

 

  1. What does ARP stand for?
  • Anonymous Resource Protocol
  • Augmented Resolution Picture
  • Address Resolution Protocol
  • Aggressive Resource Protection

 

  1. What does CIDR stand for?
  • Costless Inter-Data Routing
  • Classless Inter-Domain Routing
  • Clear Inter-Developer Relations
  • Classic Intra-Demo Ratings

 

  1. A router is performing basic routing functions. What is the first step in the transmission of a packet?
  • The router examines the destination IP of this packet.
  • Sent an ARP response.
  • Check the routing table.
  • A router receives a packet of data.

 

  1. Link state routing protocols are newer and they require…
  • Modern encryption standards
  • Manual updating
  • Less memory and less processing power
  • More memory and more processing power

 

  1. What organization helps manage IP address allocation and autonomous system number allocation?
  • ICANN
  • INNA
  • IANA
  • IBM

 

  1. What does RFC stand for?
  • Realtime Frame Check
  • Request For Comments
  • Redundant Frame Controller
  • Routing Frequency Control

 

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. What is eight bits of data called?
  • Octuplet
  • Figure eight
  • Octoploid
  • Octet

 

  1. How many bits long is an IP address?
  • 64 bits
  • 32 bits
  • 8 bits
  • 256 bits

 

  1. Which IP address is Class C?
  • 128.42.39.72
  • 172.38.14.72
  • 224.24.45.69
  • 192.37.48.98

 

  1. When describing blocks of IP addresses, what does CIDR do?
  • Interpolates data across multiple servers
  • Calls back to the source router for confirmation
  • Uses subnet masks to demarcate networks.
  • Encrypts the header data

 

  1. What protocol communicates data between routers representing the edges of autonomous systems?
  • Distance-vector
  • Link state
  • Interior gateway
  • Exterior gateway

 

  1. Which of the following IP address ranges have been defined as non-routable address space? Select all that apply.
  • 192.168.0.0/16
  • 172.16.0.0/12
  • 255.255.255.0/1
  • 10.0.0.0/8

 

  1. In a datagram, what does the flag field indicate?
  • If a datagram should be scanned for viruses
  • If a datagram has degraded and become unusable
  • If a datagram is high or low priority
  • If a datagram is allowed to or has already been fragmented

 

  1. A router is performing basic routing functions. What is the second step in the transmission of a packet?
  • A router receives a packet of data.
  • The router examines the destination IP of this packet.
  • Check the routing table.
  • Sent an ARP response.

 

  1. Ranges of IP addresses anyone can use for their internal networks are known as ______.
  • MAC address
  • Non-routable address space
  • Subnet mask
  • IP address

 

  1. Which of the following is a valid IP address?
  • 598.36.789
  • 126.396.659.100
  • 128.42.64.78
  • A8:97:4F:6D:H6:0F

 

  1. A single octet in an IP address represents what range of decimal numbers?
  • 0-255
  • 0-250
  • 1-255
  • 0-155

 

  1. A router is performing basic routing functions. What is the third step in the transmission of a packet?
  • The router looks up the destination network in its routing table.
  • The router forwards the packet.
  • The router examines the destination IP.
  • A router receives a packet of data.

 

  1. Generally, what are Class E IP addresses used for?
  • CIDR
  • Multicasting
  • Broadcasting
  • Testing

 

  1. Why do entries in a local Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table expire after a short amount of time?
  • To keep space in the table
  • It will use too much memory
  • It only needs to be used one time
  • To account for network changes

 

  1. QoS services are protocols that allow routers to make decisions about which IP datagram may be more important than others. Under which IP header field would QoS details be found?
  • Total length field
  • Identification field
  • Service Type field
  • Fragmentation offset field

 

  1. What is the purpose of an ARP response?
  • To improve authentication security
  • To prevent a flood of UDP packets
  • To let a broadcasting node know what is the MAC address to put into the destination hardware address field
  • To send an ACK message to the broadcasting computer

 

  1. What is one main reason CIDR is helpful in modern networking?
  • CIDR increases network security with no additional resources
  • CIDR simplifies MAC address assignment
  • CIDR lowers the amount of power needed to run a server
  • CIDR allows for more arbitrary network sizes

 

  1. Interior gateway protocols are used by routers in order to share information within a single…
  • subnet
  • autonomous system
  • collision domain
  • destination network

 

Week 3 – The Transport and Application Layers

 

The Transport Layer

 

  1. What ordering of TCP flags make up the Three-Way Handshake?
  • SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK
  • SYN, ACK, FIN
  • FIN, FIN/ACK, ACK
  • SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK

 

  1. Transport layer protocols, like TCP and UDP, introduce the concept of a port. How many bits are in a port field?
  • 32
  • 8
  • 4
  • 16

 

  1. A device that blocks traffic that meets certain criteria is known as a ________.
  • Firewall
  • Hub
  • Router
  • Switch

 

  1. Which TCP flag is used to make the listening program respond immediately?
  • URG
  • ACK
  • PSH
  • RST

 

  1. _________are identified as ports 49152 through 65535.
  • Sockets
  • System ports
  • User ports
  • Ephemeral ports

 

The Application Layer

 

  1. Unlike our five-layer model, the OSI network model adds two more layers on top of the Application Layer. Select examples of these new layers below.
  • The presentation layer
  • The interconnection layer
  • The session layer
  • The compression layer

 

  1. An example of something that operates at the application layer is:
  • UDP
  • TCP
  • A web browser
  • A router

 

  1. What's the standard number for a TTL field?
  • 8
  • 16
  • 32
  • 64

 

  1. Which part of the operating system does the application use to communicate the need to establish a TCP connection?
  • ARP message
  • Networking stack
  • The source port
  • The router

 

  1. Which section of the TCP/IP Five-Layer Network Model contains the data the application wants to send?
  • The payload section of the Ethernet frame
  • The payload section of the IP Datagram
  • The payload of the TCP segment
  • The header of the Ethernet frame

 

The Transport and Application Layer

 

  1. The transport layer handles multiplexing and demultiplexing through what type of device?
  • Switches
  • Hubs
  • Routers
  • Ports

 

  1. Which field in the TCP header provides the information for the receiving network device to understand where the actual data payload begins?
  • Checksum
  • Data offset
  • Acknowledgement number
  • Sequence number

 

  1. A device involved in a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection is ready to close the connection. The other device in the connection agrees. What has occurred?
  • Two-way handshake
  • Three-way handshake
  • Handshake
  • Four-way handshake

 

  1. If a TCP socket is ready and listening for incoming connections, it's in the ______ state.
  • CLOSE_WAIT
  • ESTABLISHED
  • SYN_SENT
  • LISTEN

 

  1. A communication sent through Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) arrives out of order. What allows the data to be put back together in the correct order?
  • Acknowledgement number
  • Sequence numbers
  • Checksum
  • Preamble

 

  1. In the OSI network model, the ________ is responsible for facilitating the communication between actual applications and the transport layer.
  • session layer
  • application layer
  • physical layer
  • presentation layer

 

  1. You are sending a very small amount of information that you need the listening program to respond to immediately. Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) flag will be used?
  • ACK
  • RST
  • PSH
  • URG

 

  1. What layer of the TCP/IP Five-Layer Network Model allows applications to communicate in a way they understand?
  • Data layer
  • User layer
  • Application layer
  • Transport layer

 

  1. What port does the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) typically listen on?
  • 21
  • 80
  • 443
  • 25

 

  1. A 32-bit number that's used to keep track of where you are in a sequence of TCP segments is known as a(n) ______ number.
  • TCP
  • address
  • sequence
  • acknowledgement

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. The concept of taking traffic that’s all aimed at the same node and delivering it to the proper receiving service is known as _________.
  • encapsulation
  • multiplexing
  • routing
  • demultiplexing

 

  1. Which field in a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header provides the next expected segment?
  • Checksum
  • Data offset
  • Sequence number
  • Acknowledgement number

 

  1. A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection is established and two devices ensure that they're speaking the same protocol. What has occurred?
  • Four-way handshake
  • Three-way handshake
  • Handwaving
  • Two-way handshake

 

  1. In the OSI network model, the ________ is responsible for making sure that the unencapsulated application layer data is actually able to be understood by the application in question.
  • presentation layer
  • application layer
  • session layer
  • data layer

 

  1. One side in a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection has not been able to properly recover from a series of malformed segments. Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) flag will be used?
  • RST
  • SYN
  • FIN
  • PSH

 

  1. HTTP is an example of a(n) ______ layer protocol.
  • application
  • network
  • transport
  • data-link

 

  1. A user requests an unencrypted webpage from a web server running on a computer, listening on the Internet Protocol address 10.1.1.150. What will be the socket address?
  • 10.1.1.150.80
  • 10.1.1.150.21
  • 10.1.1.150:21
  • 10.1.1.150:80

 

  1. A communication between two devices is over the maximum limit of an ethernet frame size. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) splits up the data into segments. Which field in the header helps keep track of the many segments?
  • Sequence number
  • Acknowledgement number
  • Checksum
  • Urgent pointer

 

  1. The OSI network model has _____ layers.
  • seven
  • five
  • six
  • eight

 

  1. Ports that are generally used to establish outbound connections are known as ______ ports.
  • reserved
  • ephemeral
  • registered
  • system

 

  1. In what order will the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) generally send all segments?
  • Random
  • Prioritized
  • Largest to smallest
  • Sequential

 

  1. Nodes on a network have the ability to direct traffic toward many different receiving services. What provides this ability in the transport layer?
  • Socket address
  • Demultiplexing
  • Multiplexing
  • File Transfer

 

  1. Which field in a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header is chosen from ephemeral ports?
  • Acknowledgement number
  • Source port
  • Sequence number
  • Destination port

 

  1. A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection is in working order and both sides can send each other data. What is the TCP socket state?
  • SYN_RECEIVED
  • LISTEN
  • SYN_SENT
  • ESTABLISHED

 

  1. If the checksum doesn't compute for a packet sent at the Internet Protocol (IP) level, what will happen to the data?
  • The data will be discarded
  • The data will be sent back to the sending node with an error.
  • The data will be resent
  • It will be sent, but may be out of order.

 

  1. Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) flag is used to make sure the receiving end knows to examine the sequence number field?
  • FIN
  • RST
  • SYN
  • PSH

 

  1. Application layer data lives in the _____ section of the transport layer protocol.
  • payload
  • footer
  • header
  • flags

 

  1. A connection has been terminated and no communication is possible. What is the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket state?
  • FINISHED
  • CLOSE_WAIT
  • FIN_WAIT
  • CLOSED

 

  1. Connection-oriented protocols protect against dropped data by forming connections and using a constant stream of what?
  • Acknowledgements
  • Approvals
  • Recognition
  • Verifiers

 

  1. The sequence of SYN, SYN/ACK, and ACK packets is known as the _________.
  • high five
  • two-way handshake
  • three-way handshake
  • four-way handshake

 

  1. What port does the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) typically listen on?
  • 80
  • 21
  • 25
  • 443

 

The Five-Layer Network Model

 

Use the following scenario to answer the 10 questions below:

You have 3 networks (A, B, and C) and 2 routers (Y and Z).

Network A has an address space of 10.1.1.0/24 and is connected to router Y, using the interface 10.1.1.1.

Network B has an address space of 192.168.1.0/24 and is connected to Router Y, using the interface 192.168.1.254. Network B is also connected with router Z, using the interface of 192.168.1.1.

Network C has an address space of 172.16.1.0/24 and is connected to router Z, using the interface 172.16.1.1. The diagram below represents these connections and interfaces.

  1. Computer 1 on network B, with IP address of 192.168.1.233, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 10.1.1.205. On which network is computer 2?
  • Not present
  • Network C
  • Network A
  • Network B

 

  1. For what purpose would computer 1 send a FF:FF:FF:FF:FF broadcast ARP message to all nodes on network A?
  • To obtain Router Y’s MAC address
  • To verify the internet connection
  • To obtain Computer 2 MAC address
  • To calculate the TTL

 

  1. Which layer constructs the IP datagram?
  • Physical Layer
  • Application layer
  • Network layer
  • Data layer

 

  1. What information is in the data payload of the Ethernet frame?
  • IP datagram
  • network interface
  • ART message
  • Handshake

 

  1. When constructing the Ethernet datagram to send the packet from Router Y to Router Z, what information needs to be in the destination MAC address?
  • Computer 2’s MAC address
  • Router Y’s MAC address
  • Computer 1’s MAC address
  • Router Z’s MAC address

 

  1. Computer 1 on Network A sends a packet to Computer 2 on Network C. What's the second step that Router Z does after receiving the Ethernet frame?
  • Sends an ARP broadcast message
  • Sends back the packages to router Y for confirmation
  • Calculates a checksum and compares this checksum with the one in the Ethernet frame header
  • Strips away the Ethernet frame, leaving the IP datagram. Performs a checksum calculation against the entire datagram

 

  1. Computer 1 on network A, with IP address of 10.1.1.10, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 192.168.1.14. If the TTL value was set to 64 at the beginning, what is the value of the TTL once it reaches its destination?
  • 0
  • 61
  • 65
  • 63

 

  1. Computer 1 on network B, with IP address of 192.168.1.121, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 10.1.1.8. Taking in consideration that computer 1 is sending a request to a web server on computer 2, listening on port 80, and the source port on computer 1 is 5000, which of the following contains the correct information for the first TCP segment of data?
  • Source Port: 80Destination Port: 5000Sequence Number: 1Acknowledgment Number: 2
  • Source Port: 5000
    Destination Port: 80
    Sequence Number: 1
    Acknowledgment Number: 2
  • Source Port: 8081Destination Port: 50Sequence Number: 4Acknowledgment Number: 1
  • Source Port: 80Destination Port: 5000Sequence Number: 1Acknowledgment Number: 1
  1. Computer 1 on network A, with IP address of 10.1.1.10, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 172.16.1.64. Which of the following has the correct IP datagram information for the fields: Version, minimum Header Length, Source IP, and Destination IP?
  • Version: 5Header Length: 16Source IP Address: 171.1.1.1.Destination IP address: 172.16.1.0/24.
  • Version: 6Header Length: 20Source IP Address: 8a:1a:2b:3c:4d:5fDestination IP address: 2a:2b:3c:4d:8f
  • Version: 4

    Header Length: 20

    Source IP Address: 10.1.1.10

    Destination IP address: 172.16.1.64
  • Version: 4Header Length: 32Source IP Address: 10.1.1.1Destination IP address: 172.16.1.1

 

  1. When referring to RJ45, we are referring to ________.
  • network identification
  • ethernet port
  • router velocity
  • cable plug

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Computer 1 on network A, with the IP address of 10.1.1.8, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with the IP address of 10.1.1.10. On which network is computer 2?
  • Network C
  • Network B
  • Not present
  • Network A

 

  1. Computer 1 wants to send a packet to Computer 2. Since computer 2 is not on the local network, Computer 1 checks the ARP table for the corresponding ______ that matches the gateway IP.
  • Port number
  • MAC address
  • TTL value
  • Destination MAC address

 

  1. Which layer constructs the Ethernet frame?
  • Data link layer
  • Application layer
  • Physical Layer
  • Transport layer

 

  1. Computer 1 on network C, with IP address of 172.16.1.57, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 172.16.1.133. If the TTL value was set to 64 at the beginning, what is the value of the TTL once it reaches its destination?
  • 64
    • 0
  • 61
  • 65

 

  1. Computer 1 on network B, with IP address of 192.168.1.233, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 172.16.1.133. Which of the following has the correct IP datagram information for the fields: Version, minimum Header Length, Source IP, and Destination IP?
  • Version: 4

    Header Length: 20

    Source IP Address: 192.168.233

    Destination IP address: 172.16.1.133
  • Version: 5Header Length: 16Source IP Address: 10.1.1.0/24.Destination IP address: 172.16.1.0/24.
  • Version: 4Header Length: 32Source IP Address: 10.1.1.1Destination IP address:172.16.1.1
  • Version: 6Header Length: 20Source IP Address: 8a:1a:2b:3c:4d:5fDestination IP address: 2a:2b:3c:4d:8f

 

  1. The Cat6 cable is part of the ______ layer.
  • Transport
  • Application
  • Physical
  • Network

 

  1. What information is computer 1 looking at in the ARP table on Router Y?
  • Destination MAC address
  • Port number
  • TTL value
  • MAC address

 

  1. Computer 1 on network C, with IP address of 172.16.1.57, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 192.168.1.14. Taking in consideration that computer 1 is sending a request to a web server on computer 2, listening on port 80, and the source port on computer 1 is 5000, which of the following contains the correct information for the fourth TCP segment of data?
  • Source Port: 5000Destination Port: 80Sequence Number: 1Acknowledgment Number: 2
  • Source Port: 8081Destination Port: 50Sequence Number: 4Acknowledgment Number: 1
  • Source Port: 5000

    Destination Port: 80

    Sequence Number: 4

    Acknowledgment Number: 5
  • Source Port: 80Destination Port: 5000Sequence Number: 1Acknowledgment Number: 1

 

  1. When constructing the Ethernet datagram to send the packet from Router Z to Computer 2 which is on Network C, what information needs to be in the destination MAC address?
  • Computer 2’s MAC address
  • Router Y’s MAC address
  • Computer 1’s MAC address
  • No MAC address is needed

 

  1. Computer 1 on Network A sends a packet to Computer 2 on Network C. What's the last step that Router Z does after receiving the Ethernet frame?
  • Sends back the packages to router Y for confirmation
  • Decrements the TTL by 1, calculates a new checksum, and makes a new IP datagram. This new IP datagram is again encapsulated on a new Ethernet frame.
  • Strips away the Ethernet frame, leaving the IP datagram. Performs a checksum calculation against the entire datagram
  • Calculates a checksum and compares this checksum with the one in the Ethernet frame header

 

  1. Computer 1 on network A, with IP address of 10.1.1.8, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 172.16.1.64. If the TTL value was set to 64 at the beginning, what is the value of the TTL once it reaches its destination?
  • 65
  • 60
  • 0
  • 62

 

  1. The ________ layer is responsible for sending ones and zeros through a process called modulation from Computer 1 to Computer 2.
  • Transport
  • Physical
  • Network
  • Application

 

  1. If it’s a TCP connection, which is the first segment that computer 1 needs to build?
  • IP datagram
  • handshake
  • TCP segment
  • Ethernet frame

 

  1. What information is in the payload section of the TCP segments?
  • The application layer data
  • ART Table
  • The MAC address of Computer 1
  • Handshake

 

Use the following scenario to answer the 10 questions below:

You have 3 networks (A, B, and C) and 2 routers (Y and Z).

Network A has an address space of 10.1.1.0/24 and is connected to router Y, using the interface 10.1.1.1.

Network B has an address space of 192.168.1.0/24 and is connected to Router Y, using the interface 192.168.1.254. Network B is also connected with router Z, using the interface of 192.168.1.1.

Network C has an address space of 172.16.1.0/24 and is connected to router Z, using the interface 172.16.1.1. The diagram below represents these connections and interfaces.

  1. Computer 1 on network A, with IP address of 10.1.1.205, wants to send a packet to Computer 2, with IP address of 172.16.1.57. On which network is computer 2?
  • Network A
    • Network B
    • Local network
  • Network C

 

Week 4 – Networking Services

 

Name Resolution

 

  1. What transport layer protocol does DNS normally use?
  • UDP
  • ICMP
  • IP
  • TCP

 

  1. A DNS TTL determines what?
  • How many DNS resolutions can take place before the IP has to change.
  • How long a DNS entry is allowed to be cached.
  • How many steps there are in the resolution process.
  • How far away a DNS can be from you.

 

  1. How many root servers are there?
  • 16
  • 13
  • 17
  • 8

 

  1. Which of the following are benefits of using Domain Name Resolution (DNS)?
  • Allows administrative changes to happen seamlessly.
  • Easy for the node to find the network ID.
  • Small routing tables.
  • Easier for humans to remember website names.

 

  1. The process of using DNS to turn a domain name into an IP address is known as_________.
  • ARP table lookup
  • IP addresses
  • DNS server
  • name resolution

 

Name Resolution in Practice

 

  1. An A Record contains what?
  • An SOA
  • An IPv4 address
  • An IPv6 address
  • A CNAME

 

  1. MX stands for ________.
  • Meta exchange
  • Micro exchange
  • Micro extreme
  • Mail exchange

 

  1. A fully qualified domain name can contain how many characters?
  • 63
  • 127
  • 255
  • 64

 

  1. What technique is used to balance traffic across multiple IPs for the same domain?
  • Round robin
  • Quad A record
  • Cycling records
  • CNAME

 

  1. Which of the following are part of a Zone File? (select all that apply)
  • NS record
  • SOA
  • FQDN
  • A Record

 

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

 

  1. Which of the following need to be configured for a computer to operate on a modern network? Check all that apply.
  • A TCP port
  • An IP address
  • A name server
  • A MAC address

 

  1. When using Fixed Allocation DHCP, what is used to determine a computer's IP?
  • An A Record
  • A subnet mask
  • A MAC address
  • Location

 

  1. The process by which a client, configured to use DHCP, attempts to get network configuration information is known as _________________.
  • DHCP Discovery
  • DHCP Request
  • DHCP Acknowledgement
  • DHCP Offer

 

  1. Which of the following are ways a DHCP can operate? Select all that applies.
  • Dynamic allocation
  • ARP
  • CIDR
  • Fixed allocation

 

  1. DHCP is a protocol of which layer?
  • Application layer
  • Network Layer
  • Transport layer
  • Physical layer

 

Network Address Translation

 

  1. What technique allows for specific destination ports to be configured to always deliver to specific nodes?
  • IP masquerading
  • IP translation
  • Ephemeral ports
  • Port forwarding

 

  1. The total number of IPv4 addresses is approximately:
  • 100 billion
  • 4.2 million
  • *B: 4.2 billion
  • 4.2 trillion

 

  1. Which Regional Internet Registry(RIR) serves the USA and Canada? multiple choice, shuffle
  • ARIN
  • APNIC
  • LACNIC
  • RIPE

 

  1. What is another solution to IP exhaustion that will create more public IP addresses as it is implemented? multiple choice, shuffle
  • IP masquerading
  • IPv6
  • Port preservation
  • RFC1918

 

  1. What allows a gateway to rewrite the source IP of an outgoing datagram? multiple choice, shuffle
  • IPv4
  • NAT
  • IPv6
  • IANA

 

VPNs & Proxies

 

  1. What is two-factor authentication? Select all that apply.
  • a method that requires two usernames
  • a method where you need two passwords
  • a method where users are required to verify their credentials through a combination of hardware and/or software. Usually a username, password, and a short-lived token.
  • a method where you authenticate twice

 

  1. VPNs are known as a _____ protocol.
  • network layer
  • data link layer
  • Connectionless
  • Tunneling

 

  1. A proxy is something that _______________________.
  • communicates on behalf of something else
  • allows for many devices to speak to one other device
  • encrypts traffic sent across the Internet
  • sends data across a single network segment

 

  1. What are some use cases for reverse proxies? Select all that apply.
  • IP address translation
  • Improved computer graphics
  • Encryption and Decryption
  • Load balancing

 

  1. What was one of the first technologies that commonly utilized 2FA (Two-Factor Authentication)?
  • TCP
  • DNS
  • VPN
  • UDP

 

Networking Services Simulation

 

  1. Let’s test your knowledge of networking services! You’re an IT Support Specialist at a new company. As your company grows, your manager asks you to solve various networking problems. Your task is to select the correct network device or server to solve the manager’s request.

Step 1: Read the manager’s request in the top-left corner of the screen. The manager’s request will be in the blue speech bubble next to the graphic of a person.

Step 2: Drag and drop the correct network device or server icon (e.g. DHCP) into the "drop here" box on the screen. If you make a mistake, click the back arrow button and try again.

Step 3: After you have completed all requests, close the quiz window and click the “Submit Quiz” button.

Good luck!

IMPORTANT: At the end of the interactive you will need to select the next arrow button one more time before clicking SUBMIT to receive a grade.

We need to be connected to the Internet! - Router

We’re running out of IP addresses. We’ll need to have a way to use non-routable address space! - NAT

People can’t remember so many IP addresses! - DNS

I’m worried people are going to break into our network - Firewall

Configuring the network setting for every desktop is becoming a real problem! - DHCP

We need to reduce internal collision domains - Switch

Our traveling sales people need to access internal resources on the road! - VPN

Networking Services

 

  1. A company moves a popular website to a new web host. Which of the following will change as a result?
  • Root name server
  • Internet Protocol (IP)
  • Network service
  • Domain name

 

  1. How many root name servers are there?
  • 100
  • 13
  • 24
  • 5

 

  1. How many root name servers are there?
  • 5
  • 13
  • 24
  • 100

 

  1. What is the purpose of DNS round robin technique?
  • To route traffic to different destinations, depending on factors like location, congestion, or link health
  • To balance traffic
  • To resolve an IP to a domain name
  • To redirect traffic from one domain name to another

 

  1. A complete Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) is limited to how many characters?
  • 127
  • 255
  • 53
  • 63

 

  1. Along with an IP address, a subnet mask, and a name server, which of the following is the other thing required for a computer to operate on a network?
  • A gateway
  • A proxy
  • A NTP server
  • A FQDN

 

  1. Fill in the blank: When NAT hides the source IP of an originating device, this is known as _____.
  • Port Forwarding
  • Routing
  • Masquerading
  • Switching

 

  1. What NAT technique allows for complete IP masquerading, while still having services that can respond to incoming traffic?
  • Preservation
  • Rewriting
  • Port forwarding
  • One-to-many

 

  1. VPNs often use an authentication procedure that requires a user to generate a short lived numerical token through a specialized piece of hardware or software, in addition to providing a username and password. What is this authentication procedure called?
  • Biometric authentication
  • Two-factor authentication
  • Certificate-based authentication
  • Password-based authentication

 

  1. Fill in the blank: A service that appears to external clients as a single server, but actually represents many servers behind it, is known as a _____.
  • port preservation
  • reverse proxy
  • VPN
  • multiplexer

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Which type of Domain Name System (DNS) server performs a full name resolution request?
  • Caching name server
  • Authoritative name server
  • Recursive name server
  • Root name server

 

  1. Which of these protocols is used by DNS?
  • Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
  • IP (Internet Protocol)
  • Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
  • User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

 

  1. Fill in the blank: A DNS record that's used to redirect traffic from one domain name to another is known as a _______ record.
  • CNAME
  • SQA
  • QUAD A
  • NS

 

  1. Which portion of a domain is known as the ‘www” portion?
  • The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
  • The subdomain
  • The DNS Resolver
  • The Top Level Domain (TLD) name

 

  1. Which of the following requires a manually specified list of MAC addresses and corresponding IPs?
  • Subnet mask
  • Automatic allocation
  • FQDN
  • Fixed allocation

 

  1. Network Address Translation (NAT) technology provides benefits for which of these network problems?
  • Port Preservation
  • Routable addresses
  • Address exhaustion
  • Assigning IPs to devices on the same network

 

  1. What technique is used with Network Address Translation (NAT) when a source port chosen by a client is the same port used by a router?
  • Forwarding
  • Preservation
  • Translation
  • Masquerading

 

  1. Which of these technologies uses encrypted tunnels to allow for a remote computer or network to act as if it's connected to a network that it's not actually physically connected to?
  • Domain Name System (DNS)
  • Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
  • User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

 

  1. What service acts on behalf of a client in order to access another service?
  • Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
  • A Virtual Private Network (VPN)
  • A proxy server
  • Domain Name Systems (DNS)

 

  1. Which of the following are benefits of the Domain Name System (DNS)? Select all that apply.
  • It helps automate network configuration.
  • It provides Network Address Translation (NAT).
  • It assigns Internet Protocol (IP) addresses.
  • It provides addresses that are easier for people to remember.

 

  1. A video conferencing application isn't working due to a Domain Name System (DNS) port error. Which resource record requires modification to fix the issue?
  • Host (A)
  • Canonical name (CNAME)
  • Text (TXT)
  • Service record (SRV)

 

  1. What is the non-profit organization that handles administration and definition of TLDs?
  • DHCP
  • CNAME
  • FQDN
  • ICANN

 

  1. Which of the following allows hundreds of computers all to have their outbound traffic translated to a single IP?
  • Rewriting
  • Preservation
  • One-to-many NAT
  • Port forwarding

 

  1. Fill in the blank: Most VPNs work by using the payload section of the _____ layer to carry an encrypted payload that contains an entire second set of packets.
  • transport
  • application
  • network
  • presentation

 

  1. At the very lowest level, what data does a computer understand?
  • Media Access Control (MAC) addresses
  • IP (Internet Protocol) addresses
  • Binary numbers
  • Hexadecimal digits

 

  1. Network Address Translation (NAT) is typically implemented with which of these hardware devices?
  • Hubs
  • Routers
  • Servers
  • Switches

 

  1. During the name resolution process, which server does a local recursive server contact first?
  • Root name server
  • Top level domain (TLD) server
  • Caching name server
  • Authoritative name server

 

  1. What port on a name server is used for User Datagram Protocol (UDP) name request packets?
  • 53
  • 80
  • 25
  • 22

 

  1. Which address does the field in DHPOFFER specify?
  • The Gateway address
  • The Internet Protocol (IP) address
  • The Media Access Control (MAC) address
  • The Data Link Layer

 

  1. What kind of proxy is used to prevent someone from accessing sites by inspecting what data is being requested, and then allowing or denying this request, depending on what site is being accessed?
  • A gateway proxy
  • A reverse proxy
  • An authentication proxy
  • A web proxy

Week 5 – Connecting to the Internet

 

Wireless Channels

Latest Submission Grade: 100%

Question 1

Let’s see how much you learned about wireless channels and how to select the optimal setup!

Here’s the scenario: You’re an IT Support Specialist that has setup three wireless channels for a company. As time goes on, neighboring companies have their own wireless networks coming into operation. This causes network interference between your networks and their network.

Step 1: You’ll see three wireless channels with access points that you control. These are represented by the orange bubbles on the screen. You can drag these around on the screen using the grey rectangle at the top of the bubble.

Step 2: After a few seconds, a new wireless network will appear, which is represented by a different colored bubble. This represents the competing wireless networks.

Step 3: Minimize network interference by moving your wireless channels so there’s as little overlap as possible for all wireless channels.

Step 4: Once you’ve best positioned the wireless channels, click “Submit.”

Step 5: If you successfully minimized network interference, click the “Next” button and you’ll respond to a new scenario based on your previous answer. You have 5 scenarios to complete for this activity. If your answer is wrong, click “Reset” and try again.

Neighbouring wifi has been set up at 2.447 GHz

Neighbouring wifi has been set up at 2.467 GHz

 

Which form of Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) features differing upload and download speeds?

  • HDSL
    • DSLAM
  • ADSL
  • SDSL

 

POTS and Dial-up

 

  1. Another term for POTS, or the Plain Old Telephone System, is _______________.
  • Public Available Telephone Network
  • Public Switched Telephone Exchange
  • Phone Switched Transport Network
  • Public Switched Telephone Network
  • Public Available Telephone Exchange

 

  1. A baud rate is a measurement of the number of ______________________.
  • bits that can be sent across a telephone line every minute
  • bytes that can be sent across a telephone line every second
  • bits that can be sent across a telephone line every second
  • bytes that can be sent across a telephone line every minute

 

  1. What system did Duke grads build that is still in use today?
  • DSL
  • USENET
  • POTS
  • PSTN

 

  1. Which device is used to transfer data across a dial-up connection?
  • ATM
  • Modem
  • Ethernet cables
  • USENET

 

  1. Modems take data that computers can understand and turn them into _____ that can be transmitted over POTS.
  • Audible wavelengths
  • Baud rates
  • Modulating electrical charges
  • PTSN

 

Broadband Internet

 

  1. T1 is short for __________.
  • Transmission 1
  • Transportation 1
  • Transmission System 1
  • Transportation System 1

 

  1. How fast is a T1 line?
  • 128 Mb/sec
  • 1.544 Mb/sec
  • 1 Mb/sec
  • 44.763 Mb/sec

 

  1. Select all statements that are true of cable internet connections.
  • They’re shared bandwidth connections
  • They’re wireless connections
  • They’re dial-up connections
  • They’re broadband connections

 

  1. What are the subprotocols for PPP (Point to Point Protocol)? Select all that apply.
  • FCS
  • LCP
  • NCP
  • Compression

 

  1. What do you call the demarcation point for fiber technologies?
  • ONT
  • FTTN
  • FTTX
  • DSLAM

 

WANs

 

  1. What does WAN stand for?
  • Wired Area Network
  • Wireless Area Network
  • Wireless Local Area Network
  • Wide Area Network

 

  1. In a WAN, what is the area between a demarcation point and the ISP's core network known as?
  • a Local Area Network
  • A local link
  • a local loop
  • An access point

 

  1. A point-to-point VPN is also known as a ______________.
  • one-to-many VPN
  • site-to-site VPN
  • port forwarding VPN
  • data link VPN

 

  1. Who handles sending data from one site to another?
  • CTO
  • ISP
  • VPN
  • T-carrier line

 

Wireless Networking

  1. How many address fields does an 802.11 header contain?
  • 2
  • 1
  • 3
  • 4

 

  1. What are wireless channels?
  • a point-to-point wireless connection
  • an example of an ad-hoc network
  • Individual, smaller sections of the overall frequency band used by a wireless network
  • a collision domain

 

  1. Which of the following frequencies do wireless networks typically operate on? Select all that apply.
  • 5Ghz
  • 1.544Ghz
  • 88Mhz
  • 2.4Ghz

 

  1. WPA3 was built with the intention of replacing which protocol?
  • IEEE 802.11
  • WLAN
  • WPA2
  • WEP

 

  1. An 802.11 frame contains a number of fields. Which field describes the version of 802.11 that is being used?
  • Duration
  • Address
  • Sequence control
  • Frame control

 

Limitations of the Internet

 

  1. A modulator/demodulator is better known as a what?
  • modem
  • computer
  • radio
  • telephone

 

  1. Which of the following attributes describe a broadband internet connection? (Choose all that apply)
  • Universally available
  • Not dial-up
  • Exclusively for business
  • Always on

 

  1. A T1 line consists of how many telephone channels?
  • 28
  • 24
  • 100
  • 16

 

  1. What is the more accurate name for a DSL modem?
  • CMTS
  • DSLAM
  • ONT
  • POTS

 

  1. With which of the following models do many users share a certain amount of bandwidth until the transmissions reach the ISP's core network?
  • Wireless transmissions
  • Central Office (CO) connection
  • Dedicated bandwidth
  • Shared bandwidth

 

  1. What does FTTP stand for?
  • Fiber to the People
  • Fiber to the Premises
  • File Transfer Telephone Protocol
  • Fiber Telephone Total Package

 

  1. A section of the radio spectrum that’s been agreed upon to be used for certain communications is known as a what?
  • A channel
  • A frequency band
  • A wireless LAN
  • A collision domain

 

  1. In which type of wireless configuration do nodes communicate directly with each other, rather than with an access point or any other supporting infrastrucuture?
  • Ad-hoc
  • Mesh network
  • 802.11b
  • 2.4Ghz

 

  1. How many bits long is a WPA2 key?
  • 128
  • 64
  • 256
  • 512

 

  1. Cellular networking is also known as ____ networking.
  • computer
  • mobile
  • wide area
  • organic

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. A ___ rate is the rate a dial-up connection can send data across a phone line.
  • voice
  • data
  • baud
  • transfer

 

  1. What term is used to refer to any internet connectivity technology that isn't dial-up?
  • Fast Internet
  • Ethernet
  • Plain Old Telephone System (POTS)
  • Broadband

 

  1. How many T1 lines make up one T3 line?
  • 24
  • 100
  • 28
  • 3

 

  1. What is the first field in an 802.11 header?
  • Frame Control Field
  • Sequence Control Field
  • Duration Field
  • Preamble

 

  1. What wireless security method allows you to configure access points to only allow connections from specific physical addresses belonging to devices you trust?
  • Media Access Control (MAC) filtering
  • WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
  • Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
  • 5Ghz Channel

 

  1. Like WiFi, cellular networks use what to transmit data?
  • Radio Waves
  • LAN Connections
  • Cables
  • Local Loops

 

  1. Which of the following systems is a precursor to later dial-up networks?
  • Broadband
  • World Wide Web
  • USENET
  • Bulletin Board

 

  1. What does SDSL stand for?
  • Simple Differential Subscriber Line
  • System Digital Subscriber Line
  • Subscriber Digital Service Line
  • Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line

 

  1. What does ONT stand for?
  • Optical Network Tether
  • Optional Network Traffic
  • Optical Network Telephone
  • Optical Network Terminator

 

  1. WLAN access points act as a ___ between wireless and wired networks?
  • Router
  • Bridge
  • Gateway
  • Switch

 

  1. What type of cable is used in a T1 line?
  • Fiber Optic
  • Cable Broadband
  • Twisted Pair Copper
  • Coaxial

 

  1. What type of cable is used for cable broadband?
  • TV
  • Coaxial
  • Copper
  • Fiber

 

  1. Does FTTB stand for Fiber to the Basement?
  • Yes
  • No
  • Sometimes

 

  1. Which 802.11 specification was widely adopted first?
  • 802.11a
  • 802.11b
  • 802.11g
  • 802.11ac

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a form of broadband?
  • Fiber
  • POTS
  • DSL
  • Cable Internet

 

  1. Which type of network contains one or more access points that act as a bridge between wired and wireless networks?
  • WAN
  • WLAN
  • VLAN
  • LAN

 

  1. Cellular network towers (or cells) are configured in such a way so that they avoid what type of problem?
  • Signal strength
  • Overlap
  • Speed
  • Distance

 

  1. What is a benefit of a mesh network?
  • More access points can be deployed without additional cable
  • No internet connectivity
  • All clients act as an access point
  • No access points are needed

 

  1. What security standard quickly replaced WEP in most places?
  • MAC filtering
  • WLAN
  • Ad-hoc
  • WiFi Protected Access (WPA)

 

  1. What connects lots of different cable connections to an ISP's core network?
  • CMTS
  • DSLAM
  • POTS
  • ONT

 

  1. What security standard quickly replaced WEP in most places?
  • MAC filtering
  • WLAN
  • WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
  • Ad-hoc

 

Week 6 – Troubleshooting and the Future of Networking

 

IPv6 Compression

 

5​5​8​c​:​0​0​0​0​:​0​0​0​0​:​d​3​6​7​:​7​c​8​e​:​1​2​1​6​:​0​0​0​0​:​6​6​b​e​ - 558c::d367:7c8e:1216:0:66be

0​0​c​8​:​b​4​3​4​:​0​6​e​e​:​e​c​2​f​:​0​3​c​9​:​0​1​c​e​:​7​6​5​d​:​a​6​6​b​ - c8:b434:6ee:ec2f:3c9:1ce:765d:a66b

5​d​6​6​:​5​e​c​9​:​0​0​4​6​:​0​0​0​0​:​2​5​7​6​:​0​0​4​f​:​7​1​5​9​:​0​6​3​9​ - 5d66:5ec9:46:0:2576:4f:7159:639

0​e​5​6​:​1​1​c​2​:​0​e​7​5​:​8​d​2​3​:​3​5​2​8​:​7​e​0​d​:​4​1​9​b​:​b​d​c​e​ - e56:11c2:e75:8d23:3528:7e0d:419b:bdce

2​b​0​6​:​0​0​0​0​:​0​0​0​0​:​1​f​2​b​:​d​7​7​f​:​0​0​0​0​:​0​0​0​0​:​8​9​c​e​ - 2b06::1f2b:d77f:0:0:89ce

7​d​2​b​:​0​0​a​9​:​a​0​c​4​:​0​0​0​0​:​a​7​7​2​:​0​0​f​d​:​a​5​2​3​:​0​3​5​8​ - 7d2b:a9:a0c4:0:a772:fd:a523:358

9​9​3​0​:​c​a​f​a​:​0​0​0​0​:​0​0​5​2​:​0​4​c​c​:​7​b​7​a​:​0​0​3​7​:​2​7​e​6​ - 9930:cafa:0:52:4cc:7b7a:37:27e6

0​0​e​b​:​0​0​0​0​:​0​0​0​0​:​0​0​0​0​:​d​8​c​1​:​0​9​4​6​:​0​2​7​2​:​0​8​7​9​ - eb::d8c1:946:272:879

a​d​9​3​:​a​0​e​4​:​a​9​c​e​:​3​2​f​c​:​c​b​a​8​:​1​5​f​e​:​e​d​9​0​:​d​7​6​8​ - ad93:a0e4:a9ce:32fc:cba8:15fe:ed90:d768

8​b​f​a​:​9​9​f​0​:​d​4​c​5​:​0​b​8​c​:​0​f​6​f​:​0​4​d​f​:​2​8​0​4​:​2​8​3​d​ - 8bfa:99f0:d4c5:b8c:f6f:4df:2804:283d

 

Verifying Connectivity

 

1.The protocol used to communicate network errors is known as __________.

  • TCP
  • Traceroute
  • ICMP
  • UDP

 

  1. The ping utility sends what message type?
  • Destination Network Unknown
  • Echo Request
  • Echo Reply
  • Destination Network Unreachable

 

  1. What is one of the tools you can use to verify connectivity to a specific port on Windows OS?
  • Test-NetConnection
  • Tracert
  • nc (netcat)
  • Ping

 

  1. Traceroute uses UDP packets on which of the following operating systems? Select all that apply.
  • Windows 7
  • Windows 10
  • Mac Os
  • Linux

 

  1. During a traceroute, which action does a router perform to the value in the Time To Live (TTL) field?
  • Addition
  • Multiplication
  • Division
  • Subtraction

 

Digging into DNS

 

  1. One of Level 3's public DNS servers is ____________.
  • 8.8.8.8
  • 192.168.1.1
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 4.2.2.3

 

  1. A DNS resolver tool available on all major desktop operating systems is __________.
  • Nslookup
  • Host
  • Ping
  • Tracert

 

  1. Which top-level organization manages the global DNS (Domain Name System)?
  • ICANN
  • Google
  • IANA
  • RFC

 

  1. Which of the following commands displays the current network configuration information?
  • Net user
  • Ipconfig
  • Winver
  • Pathping

 

  1. An organization responsible for assigning individual domain names to other organizations or individuals is known as a(n) ______.
  • Government
  • Internet authority
  • DNS registrar
  • Autonomous system

 

The Cloud

 

  1. A piece of software that runs and manages virtual machines is known as a __________.
  • cloud computing device
  • Hypervisor
  • virtual instance
  • cloud storage device

 

  1. What is Office 365 Outlook an example of?
  • SaaS
  • PaaS
  • IaaS
  • FttH

 

  1. A hybrid cloud is ________________.
  • a combination of a private cloud and a mesh network
  • a combination of a public cloud and hardware virtualization
  • a combination of a public cloud and a private cloud
  • a combination of virtual hosts and virtual guests

 

  1. Which of the following are additional cloud services? Select all that apply.
  • Data as a Service (DaaS)
  • VPN as a Service (VPNaaS)
  • Blockchain as a Service (BaaS)
  • Python as a Service (PaaS)

 

  1. Which cloud service provides access to things like virtual machines, containers, networks, and storage?
  • SaaS
  • FaaS
  • PaaS
  • IaaS

 

IPv6

 

  1. An IPv6 address is how many bits long?
  • 16
  • 128
  • 32
  • 64

 

  1. What is the very first field in an IPv6 header?
  • data payload field
  • version field
  • traffic class field
  • source address field

 

  1. Which IPv6 header field indicates how many routers can forward a packet before it's discarded?
  • hop limit field
  • next header field
  • router forward field
  • TTL

 

  1. The IPv4 mapped address space within IPv6 always starts with _______ zeroes.
  • 32
  • 80
  • “128”
  • 64

 

  1. For IPv6 traffic to travel on an IPv4 network, which two technologies are used? Select all that apply.
  • Datagrams
  • IPv4 Tunnels
  • Packets
  • IPv6 tunnels

 

Troubleshooting and the Future of Networking

 

  1. A Cyclical Redundancy Check (CRC) is an example of what type of built-in protocol mechanism?
  • Error detection
  • Error recovery
  • Misconfiguration error
  • Time To Live (TTL) expiration

 

  1. What does ICMP stand for?
  • Internet Control Mail Protocol
  • Internet Control Message Protocol
  • Internet Client Message Protocol
  • Interactive Control Message Protocol

 

  1. The Linux and macOS program traceroute is known by a slightly different name on Windows. It's referred to as ______.
  • Ping
  • ipconfig
  • tracert
  • Tracepath

 

  1. You run the Test-NetConnection command on a Windows PC while only providing a host name. As a result, what default action does the command use?
  • IMCP eEcho request
  • Network address translation
  • Name server lookup
  • Private tunnel

 

  1. You need to find the Internet Protocol (IP) address for a website. Which command do you use on a Windows system?
  • Netcat
  • Ping
  • Pathping
  • Nslookup

 

  1. One of Google's public DNS servers is 8.8.8.8. The other one is ______.
  • 1.2.1.1
  • 255.255.255.255
  • 8.8.4.4
  • 0.0.0.0

 

  1. What is the name of the provision of services based around hardware virtualization?
  • Domain Name System (DNS) service model
  • Cloud computing
  • Network Address Translation (NAT)
  • Subnetting

 

  1. What is The IPv6 loopback address?
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000
  • 1000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000
  • 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001

 

  1. Compress the following IP address: 9930:cafa:0000:0052:04cc:7b7a:0037:27e6.
  • 9930:cafa:0:52:4cc:7b7a:37:27e6
  • No changes, the address is already compressed.
  • 9930:cafa:0:052:4cc:7b7a:037:27e6
  • 930:cafa:00:052:04cc:7b7a:037:27e6

 

  1. Which Internet Protocol (IP) v6 field is identical in purpose to the TTL field in an IPv4 header?
  • Traffic class
  • Flow label
  • Hop Limit
  • Next header

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. The first field of an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) packet specifies the message type. Which choices represent message type examples? (Choose all that apply)
  • Destination unreachable
  • Time exceeded
  • Destination port unreachable
  • Destination network unreachable

 

  1. Which two tools function similar to traceroute? (Choose all that apply)
  • Nslookup
  • netcat
  • Mtr
  • pathping

 

  1. A tech uses the netcat tool on a Linux system. Of the choices, which has proper syntax?

 

  1. Most public Domain Name Servers (DNS) are available globally through which technology?
  • Anycast
  • Echo request
  • Time To Live (TTL) field
  • Host file

 

  1. With virtualization, a single physical machine, called a host, can run many individual virtual instances, called ______.
  • Clients
  • Servers
  • Clouds
  • Guests




 

  1. An Internet Protocol (IP) v6 address is how many bits in size?
  • 64
  • 32
  • 128
  • 256

 

  1. What is one of the most commonly used name resolution tools?
  • Nslookup
  • DNS
  • Netcat

 

  1. Internet Protocol (IP) v6 addresses are written out in which format?
  • 8 groups of 16 bits
  • 8 groups of 12 bits
  • 6 groups of 32 bits
  • 4 groups of 16 bits

 

  1. What size is an Internet Protocol (IP) v6 payload length field?
  • 16-bit
  • 8-bit
  • 32-bit
  • 20-bit

 

  1. What is one type of built-in protocol mechanism?
  • Error detection
  • Time to Live (TTL) expiration
  • IPv6
  • Misconfiguration error

 

  1. Traceroute uses UDP packets by default on which of the following operating systems? (Choose all that apply)
  • Linux
  • Mac OS
  • Windows 10
  • Windows 7

 

  1. When troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems, which helpful feature do public servers usually support?
  • Port connectivity
  • Paths between nodes
  • ICMP echo requests
  • Virtualization services

 

  1. When shortening an Internet Protocol (IP) v6 address, which two rules are used? Select two that apply.
  • Removing all leading zeros.
  • Replace groups of ones with semicolons.
  • Removing all leading ones.
  • Replace groups of zeros with colons.

 

  1. Which Internet Protocol (IP) v6 header field is used to determine the quality of service level for a datagram?
  • Flow label
  • Payload length
  • Next header
  • Version

 

  1. A support technician uses the ping utility on a system that is online, yet no response is received. What should be allowed through a firewall, for ping to operate correctly?
  • ICMP
  • Echo request
  • Echo reply
  • TTL

 

  1. While in an interactive nslookup session, you'd use the ______ keyword to change the DNS server you're using.
  • Client
  • FQDN
  • DNS
  • Server

 

  1. The ability for a protocol or program to determine that something went wrong is known as ________.
  • error detection
  • data resilience
  • redundancy
  • data verification

 

  1. When using the netcat command to test a network port, which option will provide output that is not useful for scripting, but is useful for the human eye?
  • -z
  • -v
  • -Port
  • No option is required

 

  1. A company runs sensitive technologies locally, while entrusting less-sensitive technologies to a broader user base. Which cloud delivery model is being used?
  • Private
  • Community
  • Hybrid
  • Public

 

  1. What is one of the most commonly used name resolution tools?
  • Tracert
  • DNS
  • Nslookup
  • Netcat

 

Course 3 – Operating Systems and You: Becoming a Power User

 

Week 1 – Navigating the System

 

Basic Commands

 

  1. Using a Linux machine, you have the following directory tree: [directory tree plugin]. If your current path is /home/cindy/Pictures/Canada, and you want to change to the Alaska directory, which of the following commands can you use? Check all that apply.
  • ls ../Pictures/Alaska
  • cd /Pictures/Alaska
  • cd ../Alaska
  • cd /home/cindy/Pictures/Alaska

 

  1. In Bash, which of the following commands can be used to view a list of all files in the /home directory? Check all that apply.
  • ls -la /home
  • ls -l -a /home
  • list -a /home
  • ls -la ~

 

  1. In Bash, which of the following commands can be used to remove a directory named "Miscellaneous Directory” ?
  • rm -r Miscellaneous\ Directory
  • rm Miscellaneous\ Directory
  • rm -r Miscellaneous Directory
  • rm Miscellaneous Directory

 

  1. Which of the following are command line interfaces (CLI) on Windows OS? Select all that apply.
  • Command Prompt
  • Parameter
  • PowerShell
  • Bash

 

  1. Which command is used in both Linux and Windows CLI to create a new directory?
  • cd
  • mkdir
  • rm
  • ls

 

File and Text Manipulation

 

  1. In Bash, which of the following commands can be used to view the contents of a document? Check all that apply.
  • less
  • gat
  • dog
  • cat

 

  1. A Linux machine has the following files:

 

apple.txt

 

banana.jpg

 

chocolate.txt

 

orange.txt

 

What command can be used to search for the word "fruit" in the text files? Check all that apply.

  • find fruit apple.txt chocolate.txt orange.txt
  • grep fruit apple.txt chocolate.txt orange.txt
  • grep fruit *.txt
  • find fruit apple.txt chocolate.txt

 

  1. In Bash, which of the following commands can be used to view a list of all files in the /home directory? Check all that apply.
  • ls -la /home
  • ls -l -a /home
  • list -a /home
  • ls -la ~

 

  1. A Linux machine has a file named "types_of_fish.txt". Which of the following commands can be used to append the word "trout" to the file contents?
  • echo trout > types_of_fish.txt
  • echo trout < types_of_fish.txt
  • echo trout >> types_of_fish.txt
  • echo trout 2> types_of_fish.txt

 

  1. Using a linux machine, which of the following commands can be used to list through a directory called /home/ben/Documents and search for the word "important" in the filenames in that directory?
  • ls /home/ben/Documents< grep important
  • ls /home/ben/Documents >> grep important
  • ls /home/ben/Documents > grep important
  • ls /home/ben/Documents | grep important

 

  1. Which command can be used on Windows CLI to see the first 10 lines of a file called “more_information.txt”?
  • ls more_information.txt -head 10
  • less more_information.txt -head 10
  • head more_information.txt
  • cat more_information.txt -head 10

 

Week 2 – Users and Permissions

 

Using Logs to Help You Track Down an Issue in Windows

 

Using Logs to Help You Track Down an Issue in Linux

Video

Document

 

Permissions

 

  1. What are the basic linux file permissions? Check all that apply.
  • Read
  • Write
  • Modify
  • Execute

 

  1. You're given the output of an ls -l of a file in Linux.

 

1 ls -l books_file

2 dr-x-wxr-- 1 phelan cool_group 0 Aug 20 11:10 books_file

Answer the following question: What does the first character of output signify?

  • books_file is a directory
  • The file owner is a class D user
  • books_file is a disk device
  • The file owner has delete permissions

 

  1. You're given the output of an ls -l of a file in Linux.

1 ls -l books_file

2 dr-x-wxr-- 1 phelan cool_group 0 Aug 20 11:10 books_file

Answer the following question: Who does the last trio of bits (r--) in the file permission and attributes refer to?

  • All other users
  • File owner
  • Group file belongs to
  • Regular file

 

  1. You're given the output of an ls -l of a file in Linux.

1 ls -l books_file

2 dr-x-wxr-- 1 phelan cool_group 0 Aug 20 11:10 books_file

Answer the following question: What permissions does the second trio of bits (-wx) give you? Check all that apply.

  • Read
  • Write
  • Group file belongs to
  • Execute

 

  1. If I wanted to change permissions of a file called honey_bears, what command could I use to grant write access to the owner of the file without changing other permissions? The owner currently only has read access to the file. Check all that apply.
  • chmod u+w honey_bears
  • chmod o+w honey_bears
  • chmod 644 honey_bears
  • chmod 400 honey_bears

 

Users, Administrators,Groups and Permissions

 

  1. As a Windows Administrator for a large company, you are asked to grant temporary software installation permissions to the Sales department. Which of the following would be the most efficient method for accomplishing this task?
  • Grant each employee in the Sales department temporary software installation permissions on their individual User accounts.
  • Grant each employee in the Sales department temporary Local Administrator permissions on their individual computers.
  • Grant temporary Administrator permissions to each employee in the Sales department.
  • Add the User account for each employee in the Sales department into a special Group, then grant temporary software installation permissions to the Group.

 

  1. In the Computer Management tool in Windows, what setting can an administrator enable if a user’s password was compromised and they need to update it?
  • Password never expires
  • User cannot change password
  • User must change password at next logon.
  • Password must be changed

 

  1. Which Windows PowerShell CLI command can be used to list the Users within local Groups on a given computer?
  • Get-LocalGroup
  • Get-LocalUser
  • Get-GPOReport
  • Get-LocalGroupMember

 

  1. On a Linux system, which file contains information about the users on a machine?
  • /etc/sudoers
  • /etc/users
  • /etc/passwd
  • /etc/group

 

  1. What Windows CLI command can be used to change a local user password?
  • user command
  • password command
  • new command
  • net command

 

  1. What flag can be used in Linux with the passwd command to force a user to change their password on the next logon?
  • -new flag
  • -next flag
  • -chg flag
  • -e flag

 

  1. Which of the following methods can Administrators use to remove a user in Windows? (Choose all that apply)
  • At the CLI, using the DOS style net computer computername/del command.
  • With Powershell, use the Remove-LocalUser usernamecommand.
  • At the CLI, use the DOS style net user username /del command.
  • In the GUI, under Local Users and Groups in the Computer Management tool, right click the user and select Delete.

 

  1. What does DACL stand for?
  • Discretionary Access Control List
  • Direct Access Control List
  • Discretionary Access Content List
  • Discretionary Admin Control List

 

  1. When examining the permissions on a file in Linux, how many bits are used to display this information?
  • 16
  • 9
  • 64
  • 10

 

  1. In Windows, when setting the basic permission “Read” which of the following special permissions are enabled? (Choose all that apply)
  • Read Data
  • Read Activity
  • Read Attributes
  • Read Permissions

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. On a Linux system, what is the first user that gets automatically created?
  • privileged user
  • admin user
  • user 1
  • root user

 

  1. What is the name of the privileged file on Linux that stores scramble passwords?
  • /passwords
  • /etc/shade
  • /etc/shadow
  • /etc/passwords

 

  1. When adding a new user with the same name as a previously deleted user, will the newly created user be able to access resources previously assigned to that user name?
  • No
  • Maybe
  • Yes

 

  1. In Windows, a simple permission is actually a larger set of ___
  • admin permissions.
  • special permissions.
  • user permissions.
  • partial permissions.

 

  1. Generally, what type of user has access to, but limited control over a computer?
  • Standard
  • General
  • Limited
  • Administrator

 

  1. In Windows, what does UAC stand for?
  • User Access Control
  • User Access Console
  • User Administration Control
  • User Availability Checklist

 

  1. Which of the following locations and/or methods can Administrators find and/or use to change user passwords on Windows systems? (Choose all that apply)
  • In the GUI, under Control Panel > System and Security > Change User Account Control Settings.
  • At the CLI, using the DOS style net user command.
  • In the GUI, under Local Users and Groups in the Computer Management tool.
  • At the CLI, using the DOS style net config command.

 

  1. In Windows, which of the following are directory and file permissions that can be assigned to groups and/or users? (Choose all that apply)
  • Read & Execute
  • Write
  • Change
  • List folder contents

 

  1. When examining the permissions on a file in Linux you find the the first four bits are -rwx. What does this mean?
  • It is a directory file and the owner has read, write, and exchange permissions.
  • It is a regular file and the owner has read, write, and execute permissions.
  • It is a regular file and the owner has read, write, but no execute permissions.
  • It is a directory file and the owner has read, write, and execute permissions.

 

  1. When using ICACL in the Windows CLI, what flag shows that a given user can create files?
  • WD
  • CF
  • S
  • write

 

  1. Which Windows PowerShell CLI command can be used to list the Groups on a given computer?
  • Get-LocalUser
  • Get-LocalGroupMember
  • Get-GPOReport
  • Get-LocalGroup

 

  1. On a Linux system, which file contains information about group memberships?
  • /etc/sudoers
  • /etc/users
  • /etc/passwd
  • /etc/group

 

  1. Which of the following methods can Administrators use to add a user in Windows? (Choose all that apply)
  • At the CLI, using the DOS style net computer computername/new command.
  • With Powershell, use the Create-LocalUser usernamecommand.
  • At the CLI, use the DOS style net user username * /add command.
  • In the GUI, under Local Users and Groups in the Computer Management tool, right click Users and select New User.

 

  1. Is it possible to have write access to a file in Windows without having read access to that same file?
  • Yes
  • Maybe
  • No

 

  1. Which Windows PowerShell CLI command can be used to list the Users on a given computer?
  • Get-GPOReport
  • Get-LocalGroupMember
  • Get-LocalUser
  • Get-LocalGroup

 

  1. What parameter can be used in the Windows CLI to force a user to change their password on the next logon?
  • /passwordchg:yes
  • /newpassword:logon
  • /logonpasswordchg:yes
  • /passwordkeep:no

 

  1. Does an administrator user account on a computer have complete control over a machine?
  • No
  • Yes
  • Sometimes

 

Week 3 – Package and Software Management

 

Software Distribution

 

  1. What are the best methods of checking the provided options from the installation package when performing an installation from the command line in Windows? Check all that apply.
  • Consult the documentation for the application to see what options they provide.
  • Use the command option “program name.”
  • Install the application from the GUI.
  • Use the /?, /h, or /help flags when running the package to see if they provide any helpful output.

 

  1. Which of the following file extensions are considered archives in Windows? Check all that apply.
  • .rar
  • .exe
  • .txt
  • .zip

 

  1. What PowerShell command can be used to extract and compress archives right from the command line?
  • zip
  • 7zip
  • Compress-Archive
  • Archive-Compress

 

  1. What is the purpose of a DLL in Windows?
  • To extract a package
  • To take up space on the hard drive.
  • To share a package of useful code among programs.
  • To guide the installation of a package via the Windows Installer.

 

  1. _____________ is used to guide the Windows Installer in the installation, maintenance, and removal of programs on the Windows operating system.
  • A text file
  • An msi file
  • An archive file
  • An exe file

 

Package Managers

 

  1. What's the difference between apt and dpkg? Check all that apply.
  • apt is used as a package manager.
  • dpkg installs package dependencies.
  • dpkg is used as a standalone Debian package command.
  • apt installs package dependencies.

 

  1. Which of the following PowerShell commands will install the fictional package "awesomesoftware" from the Chocolatey software source?
  • Install-Package -Name awesomesoftware -Source chocolatey
  • source chocolatey – Install-Package -Name awesomesoftware
  • Install-Package -Name chocolatey -Source awesomesoftware
  • Install-Package -Name awesomesoftware -Source MicrosoftWindows –

 

  1. Before installing a software, which of the following commands should be run to get an updated version of the software?
  • apt remove
  • apt search
  • apt install
  • apt update

 

  1. ________makes sure that the process of software installation, removal, update, and dependency management is as easy and automatic as possible.
  • An update
  • A package manager
  • A software package
  • Software distribution

 

  1. What does APT stand for?
  • Administrative Program Tool
  • Assist Package Tool
  • Advance Package Tool
  • Advance Program Tool

 

Device Software Management

 

  1. Which of these does Windows use to search for the right driver for a new piece of hardware connected to a Windows computer?
  • A data block
  • A hardware ID
  • A security patch
  • Kernel modules

 

  1. In Linux, in the /dev directory, which of these devices starts with sd?
  • USB flash drives
  • Keyboards
  • Monitors
  • Mice

 

  1. Which of the following correctly describes a "Security Patch?"
  • A program that runs in the background on the computer and downloads and installs updates
  • An entirely new, more secure, version of an operating system
  • A piece of fabric that’s meant to patch a broken cable
  • A piece of software that’s meant to fix up a security hole.

 

  1. What controls the core components of the operating system in Linux?
  • Update driver
  • The Device Manager
  • The kernel
  • BASH

 

  1. What type of Windows update model releases a full new system update package each month that supersedes the previous month’s update?
  • Cumulative update
  • Independent update
  • Driver update
  • Sudo apt update

 

Package and Software Management

 

Which of the following package formats is used by the Windows Store to distribute universal Windows platform apps?

  • Microsoft install packages
    • Debian packages
  • appx packages
  • Windows executable files

 

  1. Which of the following file types are used to guide software installations in Windows? Select all that apply.
  • deb files
  • .mpg files
  • .exe files
  • .msi files

 

  1. What does the following command do in Ubuntu:dpkg -i UbuTestPackage?
  • Uninstall a Debian package named “DPKG”
  • Search for a package that is installed on your Linux system
  • Uninstall a Debian package named “UbuTestPackage”
  • Install a Debian standalone package named “UbuTestPackage”

 

  1. Fill in the blank: _____ are a central managed marketplace for app developers to publish and sell mobile apps.
  • Package managers
  • Windows executables
  • Debian packages
  • App stores

 

  1. Which of the following Powershell commands will take all files from the desktop “TestArchive” directory, and archive it in a “TestArchive.zip” file?
  • Create-Archive -path C:\Users\testuser\Desktop\TestArchive\ ~\Desktop\TestArchive.zip
  • B: Expand-Archive -path C:\Users\testuser\Desktop\TestArchive\ ~\Desktop\TestArchive.zip
  • Archive -path C:\Users\testuser\Desktop\TestArchive.zip ~\Desktop\TestArchive\
  • *A: Compress-Archive -path C:\Users\testuser\Desktop\TestArchive\ ~\Desktop\TestArchive.zip

 

  1. Which of the following is a third party package manager for Windows?
  • Chocolatey
  • Windows installer
  • Puppet
  • SCCM

 

  1. Which of the following is the repository source file in Ubuntu?
  • /etc/repository_sources
  • /etc/APT/sources.list
  • /etc/repsrc.lst
  • /apt/repositories.lst

 

  1. In Ubuntu, when a device is connected to your computer, a device file is created in the /dev directory. What kind of device might create a file called /dev/sdc?
  • A monitor
  • A keyboard
  • A printer
  • A memory stick

 

  1. Which of the following actions can be done through right-clicking in Windows’ Device Manager console? Select all that apply.
  • Uninstalling a device driver
  • Installing a new device driver
  • Disabling a device driver
  • Updating a device driver

 

  1. Which of the following actions may update your Linux device drivers? Select all that apply.
  • Installing a kernel module
  • Updating the /dev directory
  • Plugging in a new device
  • Updating the Linux kernel

 

  1. Which of the following commands will install a new version of the Linux kernel?
  • install NewKernel
  • uname -r
  • sudo apt update
  • sudo apt full-upgrade

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Which of the following is a method for installing an app into a mobile OS?
  • Side-loading
  • Unlocking
  • Down-storing
  • Uploading

 

  1. Which of the following file types are a common type of archive file? Select all that apply.
  • .tar files
  • .rar files
  • .msi files
  • .deb files

 

  1. Which of the following Powershell commands will verify that a software package called “TestPackage” has been successfully installed on your system?
  • Get-Package -name TestPackage
  • Install-Package -name TestPackage
  • Uninstall-Package -name TestPackage
  • Find-Package TestPackage -IncludeDependencies

 

  1. What is a software repository?
  • A server that acts like a central storage location for packages
  • An open-source graphical editor
  • A package manager used in Windows
  • A package manager used in Ubuntu

 

  1. What is the piece of software that helps hardware devices interact with an operating system?
  • The devmgmt.msc program
  • The hardware ID
  • A device driver
  • A cmdlet

 

  1. When Windows notices that a new device has been connected, what’s the first thing it will do?
  • Ask for the new device’s hardware ID
  • Scan the device for viruses
  • Place the new device in an existing device category in Device Manager
  • Create a new device category in Device Manager

 

  1. Which of the following will appear as a character device in your Ubuntu /dev directory? Select all that apply.
  • A keyboard
  • A mouse
  • A hard drive
  • A CD-ROM

 

  1. Which of the following commands will update your Linux application sources?
  • sudo apt update
  • install source.list
  • sudo apt full-upgrade
  • uname -r

 

  1. Which of the following file types is used to guide software installations in Ubuntu?
  • .msi files
  • .deb files
  • .mpg files
  • .exe files

 

  1. What does the following command do in Ubuntu:apt-get install NamePackage?
  • List all packages installed on your Linux system
  • Install a software package named “NamePackage” using a package manager
  • Search for a package named “NamePackage” on your Linux system
  • Uninstall a software package named “NamePackage”

 

  1. Which of the following is the package manager used in Ubuntu?
  • Launchpad
  • Gimp
  • Puppet
  • APT

 

  1. Fill in the blank: Most vendors or computer hardware manufacturers will assign a special string of characters to their devices called a _____.
  • management prompt
  • naming token
  • device category
  • hardware ID

 

  1. Which of the following actions will open Windows’ Device Manager console? Select all that apply.
  • Plug in a new device
  • Open the Run dialog box and type in devmgmt.msc
  • Restart your computer
  • Right-click on “This PC,” in the Windows file menu, then select “Manage”

 

  1. When troubleshooting a mobile app, which of the following will remove all changes to the settings and sign out of any accounts that the app was signed into?
  • Updating the app
  • Clearing the cache
  • Restarting the mobile OS
  • Shutting down the mobile device

 

  1. Which of the following Powershell commands will create a directory called “TestArchive” on your desktop by expanding the TestArchive.zip file?
  • Compress-Archive -path C:\Users\testuser\Desktop\TestArchive\ ~\Desktop\TestArchive.zip
  • Create-Archive -path C:\Users\testuser\Desktop\TestArchive.zip ~\Desktop\TestArchive\
  • *A: Expand-Archive -path C:\Users\testuser\Desktop\TestArchive.zip ~\Desktop\TestArchive\
  • Extract-Archive -path C:\Users\testuser\Desktop\TestArchive\ ~\Desktop\TestArchive.zip

 

  1. Which of the following Powershell commands will install a software package called “TestPackage” on your system?
  • Install-Package -name TestPackage
  • Get-Package -name TestPackage
  • TestPackage-Install -Chocolatey
  • Find-Package TestPackage -IncludeDependencies

 

  1. Which of the following commands will show you what Linux kernel version you have?
  • show NewKernel
  • uname -r
  • sudo apt update
  • sudo apt full-upgrade

 

Week 4 – Filesystems

 

Partitioning and Formatting a Disk Drive in Linux

 

Filesystem Types

 

What must you do before trying to manually repair a file system with the fsck command?

  • Make sure the file system is properly mounted.
    • Run the chkdsk command.
  • Make sure the file system is properly unmounted.
  • Reboot your computer.

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of the FAT32 filesystem? Check all that apply.
  • It’s read and write compatible with Windows, Mac, and Linux OSes.
  • It supports files up to 8GB in size.
  • It doesn’t support files larger than 4GB.
  • Its filesystem size can’t be larger than 32GB.

 

  1. What’s the difference between a GPT and MBR partition table? Check all that apply.
  • GPT allows you to have volume sizes of 2TBs or greater.
  • MBR only allows you to have volume sizes of 2TBs or less.
  • GPT allows you to have volume sizes larger than 2TBs and a large number of partitions.
  • MBR is the new standard for partition tables.

 

  1. Before you can store files on a hard drive, which of the following has to be done? Check all that apply.
  • Nothing: hard drives can be used to store files out of the box.
  • Partition the disk
  • Format a filesystem.
  • Mount the filesystem.

 

  1. What is the name of the tool that ships with Windows and lets you partition a disk and format a file system?
  • NTFS
  • The Disk Management Utility
  • Allocation Unit Size
  • Volume label:

 

  1. What does Windows OS use to provide the physical memory available in the computer to applications running on the computer?
  • GUID
  • Virtual memory
  • NTFS
  • Disk partitioning

 

  1. What’s the PowerShell commandlet you can use to extract and compress archives right from the command line?
  • The second partition of the second hard drive detected on the system
  • The second B hard drive
  • The first hard drive that was detected on the system
  • The first partition of the second hard drive detected on the system

 

  1. Which of the following commands in Windows will create a symbolic link called "cauliflower" to a file named "broccoli.txt?"
  • mklink cauliflower broccoli.txt
  • mklink /H cauliflower broccoli.txt
  • mklink broccoli.txt cauliflower

 

  1. If you want to automatically mount a filesystem on computer startup, what file do you have to modify?
  • /etc/group
  • /dev/sda
  • /etc/fstab
  • /etc/sudoers

 

  1. In Linux, what's the difference between a hardlink and a symlink (Symbolic Link)? Check all that apply.
  • If you change the original name of the file, a hard link will still work.
  • A symlink adds an entry to the MFT that points to the linked file number instead of the name of the file.
  • A hardlink points to a linked file number.
  • A symlink points to a filename.

 

Filesystems

 

  1. What component of a disk tells the OS how the disk is partitioned?
  • The partition table
  • The swap table
  • The master partition list
  • The filesystems grid

 

  1. Which of the following are partition table schemes? Select all that apply.
  • Master Boot Record (MBR)
  • New Technology Files System (NTFS)
  • Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)
  • GUID Partition Table (GPT)

 

  1. When partitioning a disk and formatting a filesystem, what happens if you enable compression? Select all that apply.
  • The computer’s processor will need to do less work.
  • Files and folders will take up less space on the disk.
  • The formatting process will complete in less time.
  • Files will need to be expanded when you open them.

 

  1. In Linux, what happens when you enter the command sudo mkfs -t ext4 /dev/sdb1?
  • You rename the selected disk.
  • You specify the file system format for a partition on the selected disk.
  • You mount a partition on the selected disk.
  • You specify a partition table type for the selected disk.

 

  1. Fill in the blank: Virtual memory dedicates an area of the hard drive to use a storage base for blocks of data called _____.
  • RAM
  • base storage
  • databases
  • pages

 

  1. In Linux, when running parted in interactive mode, what happens when you enter the command mkpart primary linux-swap 5GiB 100%? Select all that apply.
  • You enable swap on the selected device.
  • You mount a swap partition.
  • You create a new disk partition.
  • You format a disk partition for swap space.

 

  1. What file attributes are stored in the Master File Table (MFT)? Select all that apply.
  • Language used in the file data
  • File creation time stamps
  • Whether or not a file is read-only
  • File data locations

 

  1. What is the Linux equivalent to symbolic links Windows?
  • inodes
  • hardlinks
  • softlinks
  • filenames

 

  1. Which features of Windows NTFS filesystem help minimize file corruption?
  • The NTFS log journaling process
  • The fsutil self-healing utility
  • The chkdsk /F command
  • The fsck command

 

  1. What might occur if you were to run fsck on a mounted partition?
  • It could damage the file system.
  • It may change the files on the partition to read-only.
  • It might rename the partition.
  • It will repair the partition 100% of the time.

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Disk partitions can be used for which of the following purposes? Select all that apply.
  • To create volumes
  • To be able to select from two different operating systems at boot up
  • To use different file systems on the same hard drive
  • To expand the storage space on a hard drive

 

  1. What is the maximum volume size for an MBR partition?
  • One terabyte.
  • 1024 megabytes.
  • Two terabytes.
  • Two gigabytes.

 

  1. When managing memory, where does the operating system keep the most commonly accessed data pages?
  • In RAM
  • In the cloud
  • In a special hidden file on the root partition of a volume called page file dot sys
  • On the hard drive

 

  1. In Linux, what happens when you enter the command sudo swapon /dev/sdb1?
  • You create a new disk partition.
  • You mount a swap partition.
  • You format a disk partition for swap space.
  • You enable swap on the selected device.

 

  1. What is the identifier that indexes a file’s entry in the MFT?
  • The volume
  • The filename
  • The creation timestamp
  • The file record number

 

  1. What is the Linux equivalent to Window’s Master File Table (MFT)?
  • ipod table
  • ipath table
  • ilink table
  • inode table

 

  1. Which of the following commands will run the check disk utility and fix any problems it finds?
  • chkfix
  • chkdsk /F
  • fsck
  • chkdsk

 

  1. Some versions of Linux will automatically run fsck on your computer to check for issues and attempt to auto-repair the file system. In these cases, when will your system automatically run fsck?
  • Any time you boot your computer.
  • Only when you update your Linux kernel.
  • Only when the operating system sets a bit in a metadata file that indicates there’s corruption.
  • At whatever time you schedule your system to run fsck.

 

  1. How many GPT partitions can you have on a disk?
  • As many as you want
  • Four
  • Sixteen
  • Five

 

  1. The Windows Disk Management Utility provides which of the following? Select all that apply.
  • A utility to make modifications to the disk and partitions on a computer
  • Information about the free and total capacity of disks and partitions on a computer
  • Information about a computer’s disks and disk partitions, as well as their file systems
  • A command line interface

 

  1. How does a shortcut link to another file?
  • By referencing a copy of the other file
  • By referencing the other file’s reference number
  • By referencing the other file’s location on the hard drive
  • By referencing the other file’s name

 

  1. How does a Linux hardlink link to another file?
  • By referencing the other file’s name
  • By referencing the other file’s physical location on the hard drive
  • By referencing the other file’s inode
  • By referencing a copy of the other file

 

  1. Which of the following are common risks for file corruption?
  • Sudden computer shut offs
  • System failures
  • Software bugs
  • Hitting the eject button in the OS

 

  1. In Linux, what information will be displayed about a computer’s disks when the sudo parted -l command is executed in the CLI? Select all that apply.
  • The partition table types for each disk
  • The number of partitions on each of the computer’s disks
  • The security permissions for each partition
  • The sizes of the disk partitions

 

  1. When partitioning a disk and formatting a filesystem, what happens if you choose the “full format” option? Select all that apply.
  • Windows will scan the target drive for errors and bad sections.
  • The formatting process will complete in less time.
  • The formatting process will take longer.
  • The allocation unit size will be larger.

 

  1. What can the Windows Memory Manager do? Select all that apply.
  • Format and partition memory
  • Map virtual memory to physical memory
  • Stores the user’s favorite photo memories in a virtual album
  • Copy pages of memory to be read as needed by programs

 

  1. What is a swap file or swap space?
  • A dedicated area of the hard drive used for virtual memory
  • An online forum for swapping files
  • A file that acts as a drive partition
  • An Exchange file

 

  1. What happens when you format a filesystem on a partition?
  • You mount a new physical storage device.
  • You eject a storage device.
  • Your machine switches between operating systems.
  • The partition becomes a volume.

 

  1. What is the maximum volume size for an MBR partition?
  • Two terabytes.
  • Two gigabytes.
  • One terabyte.
  • 1024 megabytes.

 

  1. In Linux, when running parted in interactive mode, what happens when you enter the command mklabel gpt?
  • You specify the file system format for a partition on the selected disk.
  • You specify a partition table type for the selected disk.
  • You rename the selected disk.
  • You mount a partition on the selected disk.

 

Week 5 – Process Management

 

Life of a Process

 

  1. What’s one main difference between Windows and Linux processes?
  • Linux processes can operate independent of their parents. Windows processes have a parent-child relationship.
  • There are no differences between Windows and Linux processes
  • Windows processes can operate independent of their parents. Linux processes have a parent-child relationship.

 

  1. What do we launch when we execute a program?
  • A process
  • The CPU
  • A Word document
  • A web browser

 

  1. What type of process is a daemon process?
  • Logging
  • Thought process
  • Background process
  • Foreground process

 

  1. What is the name of the process that starts up other processes needed to boot a Linux OS?
  • Init
  • Smss.exe
  • PID
  • Kill

 

  1. Which process in Windows OS handles running the GUI and command line console?
  • Smss.exe
  • Winlogon.exe
  • Notepad.exe
  • csrss.exe

 

Managing Processes

 

  1. Which of the following tools can help you gather information about the processes running on a Windows operating system?
  • The tasklist utility from a command prompt
  • The Task Manager
  • The Get-Process commandlet from a PowerShell prompt
  • All of the above

 

  1. If you restart a process using the Process Explorer utility, what will the new parent of that process be?
  • Momanddad.exe
  • Process Explorer
  • Windows.exe
  • Cmd.exe

 

  1. Which signal is used to resume the execution of a process?
  • SIGCONT
  • SIGTERM
  • SIGSTP
  • SIGKILL

 

  1. What is a common way to troubleshoot mobile apps running in the background that slow down a mobile device’s performance?
  • Upgrade the phone to a newer model
  • Close out the background apps in the app switcher
  • Charge the phone
  • Exit out of the app that is currently open

 

  1. What is a utility Microsoft created to let IT support specialists, systems administrators, and other users look at running processes?
  • UID
  • Task Manager
  • Process Explorer
  • SIGKILL

 

Process Utilization

 

  1. Which of the following PowerShell commands will tell you which process on your system is using the most CPU resources?
  • Get-Process | Sort CPU -descending | Select -first 1 -Property ID,ProcessName,CPU
  • Get-Process | Sort RAM -descending | Select -first 1 -Property ID,ProcessName,CPU
  • cpu_usage.exe | top -1

 

  1. If you have a slow computer, what are some possible culprits that could be causing this? Select all that apply.
  • High CPU usage
  • Lots of I/O activity
  • High RAM usage
  • Too many processes running

 

  1. In a Linux machine, what command can you use to safely terminate a process with a PID of 342?
  • kill 342
  • kill -KILL 342
  • kill -TSTP 342
  • kill -CONT 342

 

  1. In a Linux machine, what command can you use to absolutely kill a process with a PID of 342?
  • kill 342
  • kill -KILL 342
  • kill -TSTP 342
  • kill -CONT 342

 

  1. In a Linux machine, what command can you use to suspend a process with a PID of 342?
  • kill 342
  • kill -KILL 342
  • kill -TSTP 342
  • kill -CONT 342

 

Process Management

 

  1. When Windows boots up, what is the first non-kernel process that starts?
  • Powershell.
  • The smss.exe process
  • The csrss.exe process.
  • The winlogon process.

 

  1. In the following Linux command, which is the parent process and which is the child?

$ less /etc/myfile | grep Hello

  • The parent is grep and the child is less.
  • The parent is /etcand the child is myfile.
  • The parent is less and the child is /etc/myfile.
  • The parent is less and the child is grep.

 

  1. Which of the following methods can be used to get information on processes that are running in Windows? Select all that apply.
  • Use the Windows Task Manager.
  • From the CLI, use the tasklist command.
  • From the PowerShell prompt, use the Get-Process commandlet.
  • From the CLI, use the ps command.

 

  1. Which of the following methods will provide information on processes that are running in Linux? Select all that apply.
  • List the contents of the /proc directory.
  • Use the ps -x command.
  • List the contents of the /etc directory.
  • Use the ls command.

 

  1. What is the default action of the SIGINT signal?
  • To terminate the process that is signaled
  • To restart the process that is signaled
  • To put the process that is signaled into a sleep state
  • To suspend the process that is signaled

 

  1. You launch notepad.exe from a PowerShell command prompt. Later, you use Process Explorer to restart the notepad.exe process? After restart, what is the parent process of notepad.exe?
  • Process Explorer (procexp.exe)
  • smss.exe
  • notepad.exe
  • PowerShell (powershell.exe)

 

  1. In Linux, what signal puts a process into a suspended state?
  • SIGKILL
  • SIGTERM
  • SIGINT
  • SIGTSTP

 

  1. In iOS and Android, which app becomes a foreground app when you go to the home screen?
  • SMSS
  • The Home app
  • There are no foreground apps when you are on the home screen.
  • All open apps

 

  1. In Windows, what information is displayed by the Resource Monitoring tool? Select all that apply.
  • System hardware properties
  • Process information along with data about the resources that the process is consuming
  • Information about current time and how long your system’s been running
  • Information about particular resources on the system (like CPU, Memory, and Network usage)

 

  1. What does the top command do in Linux? Select all that apply.
  • It provides information on process CPU and memory usage.
  • It provides a snapshot of total tasks currently running or idling.
  • It lists the top ten largest files on the system.
  • It lists the top processes that are using the most resources on a machine.

 

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Which of the following statements are true about child processes in Windows? Select all that apply.
  • A child process inherits environment variables and settings from its parent.
  • A child process can be terminated by clicking on the X button in the top right corner of the application.
  • A child process is dependent on its parent process until the child process is terminated.
  • A child process can be terminated by running the taskkill /pidcommand in the CLI.

 

  1. In Linux, what process has the PID of 1?
  • kernel
  • less
  • grep
  • init

 

  1. Which of the following options are available in Process Explorer after right-clicking a running process in the top window pane? Select all that apply.
  • Restart
  • Suspend
  • Kill Process
  • Remove Process Tree

 

  1. In Linux, what signal is sent when you enter the kill pidcommand?
  • SIGTSTP
  • SIGTERM
  • SIGINT
  • SIGKILL

 

  1. Which of the following tools or commands can be used to monitor resources in Windows? Select all that apply.
  • The PowerShell Get-Processcommandlet
  • The msinfo32 command entered in the CLI
  • Control Panel
  • The Resource Monitoring tool

 

  1. You launch notepad.exe from a Powershell command line. Which of the following is true?
  • The Powershell process is the parent process for notepad.exe.
  • The notepad.exe process is the parent process for Powershell.
  • The notepad.exe process will terminate when the Powershell process terminates.
  • The Powershell process will terminate when the notepad.exe process terminates.

 

  1. Which of the following Linux commands shows information about the current time, how long your system's been running, how many users are logged on, and what the load average of your machine is?
  • top
  • uptime
  • lsof
  • ps -ef

 

  1. Which of the following represents a signal in Linux?
  • SUDO
  • PING
  • TOUCH
  • SIGPROF

 

  1. Which of the following options in Process Explorer will terminate a selected process? Select all that apply.
  • Kill Process
  • Suspend
  • Kill Process Tree
  • Restart

 

  1. Which of the following Powershell commands will sort processes by amount of non-paged memory, in descending order?
  • Get-Process| Sort NPM -descending | Select -property ID, ProcessName
  • Get-Process| Sort CPU -descending | Select -property ID, ProcessName
  • Get-Process| Sort -property ID, ProcessName
  • Get-Process| Sort WS -ascending | Select -property ID, ProcessName

 

  1. When a process completes its task, what happens? Select all that apply.
  • The process terminates automatically.
  • The process releases all the resources it was using to its parent.
  • The process goes into a suspended state.
  • The process releases all the resources it was using back to the kernel.

 

  1. How do you find a process PID number in Windows Task Manager?
  • Task Manager will not show PID numbers (you have to use the tasklist command or the Get-Process commandlet).
  • Click on the Processes tab.
  • Click the Details tab.
  • Select a process from the process list.

 

  1. Which of the following process information can you find in Windows Task Manager? Select all that apply.
  • The memory resources the process is using
  • What application or image the process is running
  • What time the process started
  • The CPU resources the process is using

 

  1. Which of the following statements are true about SIGINT? Select all that apply.
  • It can be sent at the CLI by typing the sigint command.
  • It is a signal that exists in both Windows and Linux.
  • It is an interrupt signal that can be sent to a process that is running.
  • It can be sent at the CLI by pressing the CTRL+C keys.

 

  1. What happens to background apps while a foreground app is in use on iOS and Android?
  • The background apps will take turns running in the background to use less processing power.
  • The OS will suspend background mobile apps.
  • The background apps continue to run normally.
  • The OS will terminate the background apps.

 

  1. When using the ps -ef command to read process information in Linux, what is the process’ PPID?
  • The terminal associated with the process
  • The ID of the person who launched the process
  • The Process Identification number of its parent
  • Its Process Identification number

 

  1. What are the two most common ways to terminate a process in Linux at the CLI? Select two options.
  • Use the kill -KILL pidcommand
  • Use the terminate process command.
  • Use the end process command.
  • Use the kill pidcommand.

 

  1. Which of the following Linux commands lists open files and what processes are using them?
  • lsof
  • uptime
  • ps -ef
  • top

 

Week 6 - Operating Systems in Practice

 

Remote Access

 

  1. Which portion of the PuTTY package allows you to perform file transfers using the Secure Copy protocol?
  • Pscp.exe
  • Pageant.exe – Not quite. The pageant tool is used by PuTTY to perform SSH authentication — not to perform data copies between computers.
  • Psftp.exe
  • Mstsc.exe

 

  1. What is a protocol implemented by other programs for secure computer-to-computer access?
  • Remote connection
  • SSH
  • SCP
  • PuTTY

 

  1. Which of these gives users a graphical user interface (GUI) to remote computers that have enabled connections from it.
  • Pscp.exe
  • PuTTY
  • RDP
  • SCP

 

  1. Which of the following is a Linux command used to copy files securely between computers on a network?
  • SSH
  • RDP
  • PuTTY
  • SCP

 

  1. What can you use to give access to files to a group of users as an alternative to transferring files from one computer to another?
  • A shared folder
  • Mstsc.exe
  • A remote connection
  • SSH

 

Logging

 

  1. If you were investigating login issues on a Windows computer, which portion of the Event Viewer logs would be a good place to start your investigation?
  • Application and Services
  • Security
  • System

 

  1. In what log files can you find information about bootup errors? Select all that apply.
  • /var/log/auth.log
  • /var/log/mail.log
  • /var/log/kern.log
  • /var/log/syslog

 

  1. In what log files can you find information about authentication errors?
  • /var/log/auth.log
  • /var/log/kern.log
  • /var/log/syslog
  • /var/log/mail.log

 

  1. For an ssh connection to work, which of the following need to be true? Check all that apply.
  • SSH is installed on client.
  • The SSH server is running on the host you want to connect to.
  • VPN needs to be set up.
  • You need to specify a hostname to SSH into.

 

  1. What command do you use to view error logs in real time?
  • Less var/log/syslog
  • /var/log/auth.log
  • -kill
  • Tail -f

 

Operating System in Practice

 

  1. Which of the following can be used to connect securely to a remote computer? (Choose all that apply)
  • An SSH client
  • A VPN connection
  • An SSD client
  • A dynamic-link library

 

  1. What happens when you type the following command in the Powershell command line: putty.exe -ssh alex-chi@104.131.122.215 22?
  • You will establish a chat connection with someone called “auser”
  • You will establish a chat connection with someone called “auser”
  • Your computer connects to an SSH located at IP address 104.131.122.215
  • You will search for a user called “alex-chi” logged into your local area network

 

  1. Which of the following is the Windows command line tool that enables file sharing from the CLI?
  • share file
  • net share
  • file share
  • share to net

 

  1. What is Virtual Box?
  • A cloud-based file hosting service
  • A virtual machine
  • Software for managing virtual instances
  • A VPN network

 

  1. Is it possible to run a virtual instance with Linux on a physical machine that is running Windows?
  • Maybe
  • No
  • Yes

 

  1. What Windows application stores events logged by the operating system?
  • LogOS View
  • Event Viewer
  • Powershell
  • SLogGUI

 

  1. In Linux, which of the following log files usually contains the most comprehensive list of events?
  • The /var/log/kern.log file
  • The /var/log/uber.log file
  • The /var/log/dmesg file
  • The /var/log/syslog file

 

  1. Which of the following commands can be used to observe your syslog in real time?
  • tail -f /var/log/syslog
  • run -l /var/log/syslog
  • view -rt /var/log/syslog
  • rtview /var/log/syslog

 

  1. What is disk cloning used for? Select two that apply.
  • To image a computer system
  • To copy files from remote computers using the Secure Copy protocol (SCP)
  • To set up a remote desktop
  • To back up a machine

 

  1. What is the difference between using SCP and other methods of file transfer?
  • SCP is less resource intensive than an email
  • SCP encrypts a flash drive for transfer
  • SCP uses SSH to transfer data
  • There is no difference

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Which of the following programs is a popular SSH tool for Linux operating systems?
  • PuTTY
  • LinuxSSH
  • GoSSH
  • OpenSSH

 

  1. What does the PuTTY pscp.exe tool do?
  • It creates a virtual machine on your Windows desktop.
  • It creates a virtual private network.
  • It launches the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client in Windows.
  • It lets you copy files to and from remote computers.

 

  1. What is one benefit of using a virtual machine vs a physical one?
  • Virtual machines don’t require passwords
  • Multiple users can use one virtual machine
  • Virtual machines are free to use on the cloud
  • It’s very simple to change virtual hardware resource allocation

 

  1. Alex is trying to start an Ubuntu virtual machine for the first time. They’ve already installed Virtual Box on their Windows computer, which of the following is a good next step?
  • Download the Ubuntu OS image
  • Restart the virtual instance
  • Download a Windows OS image
  • Add more physical RAM

 

  1. You’ve found a log file with a long list of errors in it. Where in the log would be a good place to start searching for the problem?
  • The top
  • The middle
  • The bottom

 

  1. What remote connection tool is built into the command line after PuTTY is installed on a Windows computer?
  • PuTTYPwrShell
  • PuTTYcmd
  • Plink
  • Premote

 

  1. What is a virtual instance?
  • A program for creating virtual machines
  • A virtual machine that has been copied
  • A virtual machine that only runs in the CLI
  • A single virtual machine

 

  1. In Linux, what type of messages are stored in the /var/log/dmesg file?
  • Diagnostic messages
  • System messages
  • System startup messages
  • Direct messages

 

  1. What is a benefit of cloning a hard drive versus installing from installation media?
  • A cloned drive is more secure
  • Cloned drives will last longer
  • Installing from installation media is more resource intensive
  • The cloned drive also includes settings and folders

 

  1. When using the SCP command, what information will you need to complete the transfer? (Choose all that apply)
  • Source hostname
  • Destination IP address
  • Destination user
  • Source IP address

 

  1. What does SSH stand for?
  • Secure Shell
  • Single Server Hold
  • Secure Service Handler
  • Solid State Handshake

 

  1. Which of the following is needed to virtualize an instance of Ubuntu the first time? (Choose all that apply)
  • A physical host machine
  • Software for installing an OS image
  • An image of Ubuntu
  • A Windows host system

 

  1. What Windows application stores events logged by the operating system?
  • Event Viewer
  • SLogGUI
  • LogOS View
  • Powershell

 

  1. It is important that log are regularly cleaned out to make room for new ones. In Linux, what utility manages this?
  • logswap
  • cleanlog
  • logrotate
  • delnewlog

 

  1. What happens when you type the following command in the Linux command line: sudo dd if=/dev/sdd of=~/Desktop/USBcopy.imge bs=100M? Select all that apply.
  • You will create an image file on your desktop
  • You will create a file called “100M.”
  • You will make a copy of all data located on an sdd device.
  • You will delete a file called “USBcopy.imge.”

 

  1. What is the Microsoft Terminal Services Client used for?
  • Enabling terminal connections on a remote computer.
  • Locating terminals running on a computer.
  • Creating RDP connections to remote computers.
  • Connecting with Linux computers outside of the local network.

 

  1. What is one reason you might avoid sharing a folder with everyone on your network in Windows?
  • It means your computer always needs to be on.
  • It’s resource intensive.
  • It removes anything you’ve already placed in the folder.
  • It’s not very secure.

 

  1. In the Windows Event viewer, what is the highest logging level for an event?
  • Top
  • Critical
  • Warning
  • High

 

  1. What event grouping can be used in the Windows Event Viewer to filter specific types of events?
  • Filter Views
  • Custom Views
  • Error View
  • Sorted Logs

 

  1. You’re working on a computer, but the log doesn’t show any clear errors. Where in the log would be a good place to start searching for the problem?
  • The bottom
  • The top
  • The middle

 

Course 4 – System Administration and IT Infrastructure Services

 

Week 1 – What is System Administration?

 

Systems Administration Tasks

 

A user is setting their computer’s hostname and username. In which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this scenario belong to?

  • Maintenance
  • Deployment
  • Retirement
  • Procurement

 

  1. Which of the following is a good policy to enforce on passwords? Check all that apply.
  • The use of common words
  • A long password length
  • A mixture of symbols and numbers
  • A short password length

 

  1. Which of the following are part of the hardware lifecycle? Check all that apply.
  • Deployment
  • Network Connectivity
  • Procurement
  • Retirement

 

  1. _______is the stage where hardware is purchased or re-used for any employee.
  • Deployment
  • Purchased
  • Retirement
  • Procurement

 

  1. Vendor qualification and risk mitigation is a step of which phase of the contract vendor lifecycle?
  • Post-contract
  • Risk management
  • Pre-contract
  • Qualification

 

  1. Which of the following are management steps of the vendor lifecycle?
  • Vendor offboarding.
  • Performance management monitoring.
  • Contract analysis
  • Vendor information management and onboarding.

 

What is System Administration?

 

  1. Which company might have an IT infrastructure run by a single person?
  • Facebook
  • Apple
  • Google
  • A local small business

 

  1. Which of the following are potential responsibilities of a sysadmin? (Choose all that apply)
  • Network administration
  • Database administration
  • Payroll administration
  • Technical support

 

  1. What device is commonly used to connect to and control multiple computers using a single keyboard, mouse, and monitor?
  • KVM switch
  • Managed hub
  • DNS server
  • Load Balancer

 

  1. Which of the following tools is not provided by a KVM switch?
  • Monitor
  • Keyboard
  • Mouse
  • Printer

 

  1. If the cloud storage service that a business uses goes down, is that a problem that the system administrator is responsible for?
  • No
  • Sometimes
  • Yes

 

  1. In addition to setting up services, what other tasks does a sysadmin have to keep in mind? (Choose all that apply)
  • Routine updates
  • Keep a record of user passwords
  • Maintaining compatibility
  • Security patches

 

  1. Broken computers are being eco-recycled. In which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this scenario belong to?
  • Maintenance
  • Procurement
  • Deployment
  • Retirement

 

  1. When a machine is having issues, an IT Support Specialist has to file an RMA, or Return Merchandise Authorization form, with the vendor of the machine. Which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this scenario belong to?
  • Deployment
  • Retirement
  • Maintenance
  • Procurement

 

  1. The IT department sets up a user account and software. Which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this situation belong to?
  • Procurement
  • Retirement
  • Maintenance
  • Deployment

 

  1. An employee is starting at the company. Which of these steps are appropriate to take during onboarding? (Choose all that apply)
  • Providing instructions on how to log into their new machine, get email etc.
  • Ask the employee to provide a personal laptop
  • Collect the user’s logon information
  • Install software the user needs on their machine

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Which type of server most closely resembles a desktop computer in appearance?
  • Blade server
  • Rack server
  • Tower server
  • DNS server

 

  1. Which of the following are server types that a sysadmin for a small company might manage?
  • SSD
  • SSH
  • VR
  • Email

 

  1. What are some disadvantages of cloud computing? (Choose all that apply)
  • It could potentially cost more
  • Use less local storage space
  • Not having to manage server hardware
  • Becoming dependent on the cloud provider

 

  1. An IT department submits a purchase order to buy a new computer from a vendor. Purchase orders are documents issued by buyers that indicate a purchase they want to make from a seller. Which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this scenario belong to?
  • Retirement
  • Deployment
  • Procurement
  • Maintenance

 

  1. An IT department uses a pre-used laptop out of their hardware inventory for a new user. Which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this scenario belong to?
  • Deployment
  • Procurement
  • Maintenance
  • Retirement

 

  1. An employee is leaving the company. Which of these steps are appropriate to take during offboarding? (Choose all that apply)
  • Let the employee keep the company laptop
  • Remove the user’s access to IT resources
  • Ask the user for their logon information
  • Wipe the machine for future use

 

  1. Who works in the background to make sure a company’s IT infrastructure is always working and is constantly fighting to prevent IT disasters from happening?
  • The CEO
  • The janitor
  • The regional manager
  • The system administrator (or sysadmin)

 

  1. What is a machine that uses services provided by a server called?
  • KVM switch
  • VPN (Virtual Private Network)
  • Client
  • Managed hub

 

  1. What is it called when a regular time is set aside to update the company servers at once?
  • Scheduled update
  • Timed update
  • Automatic update
  • Batch update

 

  1. A script sets up user accounts and installs software for a machine. Which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this scenario belong to?
  • Procurement
  • Deployment
  • Retirement
  • Maintenance

 

  1. Whose responsibility is it to form organizational computer and network policies?
  • Board of directors
  • Chief Executive Officer
  • Chief Security Officer
  • The sysadmin

 

  1. Which are examples of IT infrastructure? (Choose all that apply).
  • A company’s workforce
  • Computers employees use to access the Internet
  • File sharing service for project files
  • An organization’s website

 

  1. Of the following, which type of server hardware is the most space-efficient?
  • KVM switch
  • Rack server
  • Tower server
  • Blade server

 

  1. Which of these terms describe a facility that stores hundreds, if not thousands, of servers?
  • Data center
  • KVM switch
  • SSH server
  • Web server

 

  1. Which of the following are considerations when developing computer policies? (Choose all that apply)
  • Should users be able to install software
  • Should users be able to decide the brightness of their monitor?
  • Should users be able to view non-work-related websites, like Facebook?
  • Should a password be set on an employee’s company phone?

 

  1. A machine has to be returned to the vendor for proper recycling. Which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this scenario belong to?
  • Procurement
  • Deployment
  • Maintenance
  • Retirement

 

  1. Which of these are common responsibilities of systems administrators? Check all that apply.
  • Constantly troubleshoot problems, such as network issues
  • Help users to pick the right desktop chair
  • Help users with issues, such as lost passwords and login problems
  • Work in the background to make sure a company’s IT infrastructure is always working

 

  1. Which of the following is not one of the main stages of the hardware lifecycle?
  • Recycling
  • Deployment
  • Procurement
  • Maintenance

 

  1. A machine is having issues, so the user is getting the machine serviced. Which stage of the hardware lifecycle does this scenario belong to?
  • Procurement
  • Retirement
  • Maintenance
  • Deployment

 

Week 2 – Network and Infrastructure Services

 

Which one of the following options allows you to access a system remotely?

  • Server
    • NTP
  • SSH
  • D: FTP

 

If you want to integrate your DHCP server with DNS, which of the following information will you need to configure DHCP? Select all that apply.

  • A domain name
  • The address of your local DNS servers
  • The subnet mask that gets used
  • The Gateway you should assign

 

Intro to IT Infrastructure Services

 

  1. Which of the following are considered part of the physical infrastructure service? Check all that apply.
  • Laptop
  • Rack server
  • Desktop
  • Operating systems

 

  1. Which of the following are considered a network service? Check all that apply.
  • DNS
  • Email server
  • Blade server
  • Wireless Internet

 

  1. Amazon Web Services, Linode, Windows Azure, and Google Compute Engine are examples of ________.
  • NaaS providers
  • Shopping places
  • Computer brands
  • IaaS Providers

 

  1. Which of the following are considered a software service? Check all that apply.
  • Wireless Internet
  • Word processors
  • Email applications
  • Chat applications

 

  1. What type of service is an all-in-one solution to building and deploying a web application?
  • PaaS
  • NaaS
  • SaaS
  • IaaS

 

Physical Infrastructure Services

 

  1. Which one of the following operating systems would be best suited for running a server?
  • Ubuntu Server
  • MacOS
  • Windows 10
  • Ubuntu

 

  1. Which of the following are benefits of virtualizing servers? Check all that apply.
  • Easier maintenance.
  • Low RAM memory requirement.
  • Better performance than a dedicated server.
  • Better hardware resource utilization.

 

  1. Which of the following are ways that can be used to run services?
  • Virtualized instance on a server.
  • Dedicated hardware
  • VPN
  • SSH

 

  1. Which of the following is needed in order to use SSH to connect to a machine? Check all that apply.
  • A VPN connection.
  • An SSH server on the machine you want to connect to.
  • A virtual server to connect to.
  • An SSH client on the machine from which the connection begins.

 

  1. Which of the following are samples of remote access tools? Select all that apply.
  • RAM
  • RDP
  • OpenSSH
  • WinRM

 

 

Network Services

 

  1. What is one benefit of using TFTP over SFTP?
  • Added security
  • Simpler transfer without authentication
  • The encrypted transfer of data
  • The user authentication requirement

 

  1. What service can you use to keep time synchronized across the machines on your fleet?
  • FTP
  • Kerberos
  • NTP
  • SFTP

 

  1. What features does a proxy offer? Check all that apply.
  • Network privacy
  • Network traffic monitoring
  • Internet traffic filtering
  • The ability for employees to share information more easily

 

  1. The ability for employees to share information more easily
  • DHCP
  • DNS
  • NTP
  • SFTP

 

  1. If you don't want to use static IP addresses, but want to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers instead, what network protocol can you use?
  • TFTP
  • Kerberos
  • NTP
  • DHCP

 

Network Services

 

  1. Which of these is an advantage of using Infrastructure as a Service (or IaaS) solutions?
  • It lets users access software online without having to install it on individual systems.
  • It provides the resources users need without maintaining any actual hardware.
  • The user can keep files on a local network.
  • It centralizes the organization’s users and computers in one location, and the organization can add, update, or remove users and computers.

 

  1. What type of cloud service allows app developers to build code, store information in a database and serve their applications from a single place?
  • SaaS (Software as a Service)
  • PaaS (Platform as a Service)
  • DaaS (Directory as a Service)
  • IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)

 

  1. Which of the following is a benefit of virtualization compared to using dedicated hardware?
  • User experience
  • Maintenance
  • Security
  • Performance

 

  1. The boss at your company wants a way to block certain websites from employees. As the sole IT professional at the company, what can you set up to help with this request?
  • A Proxy server
  • DNS
  • FTP
  • An Intranet

 

  1. As an IT systems administrator, what can you set up to make sure that your client machines and server times are in sync?
  • A proxy
  • An intranet
  • NTP
  • A: FTP

 

  1. Which of the following file transfer protocols is the most secure?
  • NTP
  • TFTP
  • SFTP
  • FTP

 

  1. You want to access the CLI (command line interface) of a Linux terminal at work from your Apple laptop at home. You have the proper client installed on your laptop. What needs to be installed on the remote Linux machine?
  • PuTTY
  • OpenSSH
  • WinRM
  • RDP

 

  1. When you make a DNS query, where does your computer first check to find an IP address to name mapping?
  • ISP DNS servers
  • Your local machine
  • Top-level domains
  • Root servers

 

  1. Which of the following is an advantage of using DHCP?
  • DHCP leases IP addresses, removing the need to manually assign addresses.
  • DHCP allows usage of static IP addresses
  • DHCP allows you to manually set IP addresses.
  • DHCP maps IP addresses to human readable URLs.

 

  1. A network technician sets up an internal DNS server for a local network. When the technician types in a URL, which is checked first?
  • External ISP DNS servers
  • The local host file
  • Local DNS servers
  • External public DNS servers

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Google’s GSuite (now called Google Workspace) is an example of which Cloud service?
  • Software as a Service (SaaS)
  • Directory as a Service (DaaS)
  • Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
  • Platform as a Service (PaaS)

 

  1. Which of the following are cons that come from using a Cloud Service? Select all that apply.
  • A simplified user interface
  • The need to depend on a provider for service
  • Having to purchase expensive networking hardware
  • Recurring cost

 

  1. Which of the following is a potential negative (con) of virtualization compared to using dedicated hardware?
  • Maintenance
  • Cost
  • Points of failure
  • Performance

 

  1. A sysadmin wants to use preboot execution over a network. Which type of server will the sysadmin likely use to administer operating system installation files?
  • A DNS server
  • An FTP server
  • An SFTP server
  • A TFTP server

 

  1. PuTTY in Windows is similar to which Linux tool?
  • CLI
  • SSH
  • RDP
  • Virtualization

 

  1. Which of the following are reasons for using DNS? Select all that apply.
  • It maps names humans can understand to IP addresses.
  • It maps local addresses to simple names without editing hosts files.
  • It lets users remotely operate computers from miles away.
  • It improves network throughput.

 

  1. What does DHCP do?
  • DHCP sets up an authoritative DNS server a network.
  • DHCP assigns IP addresses to computers on a network.
  • DHCP maps domain names to IP addresses.
  • DHCP keeps the clock synchronized on machines connected to a network.

 

  1. You are the sole IT professional at your company and you need to know how many users or computers are in your organization. Which of the following services helps manage users in your company?
  • Physical infrastructure services
  • Platform services
  • Network services
  • Directory services

 

  1. Which of the following are typically included with server operating systems to help optimize server functionality? Select all that apply.
  • Allow more network connections
  • Added security
  • More RAM capacity
  • A simplified user interface

 

  1. What is a type of tool a client could use to access a server and transfer files?
  • A DNS server
  • IaaS
  • An FTP Client
  • A server operating system

 

  1. You are setting up a website for your company. You have purchased a domain name for the site and have decided to host your web content yourself. What might you need to set up to point your new domain name to where web content is located?
  • An authoritative DNS server
  • A TFTP server
  • A VNC client
  • A proxy server

 

  1. A website is inaccessible via its URL. You've pinged the site and see no problem there. What is the next troubleshooting step?
  • Ping localhost
  • Use nslookup in the terminal to rule out DNS issues
  • Turn the device off and on again
  • Access host file and check for inconsistencies

 

  1. Which service gives access to pre-configured virtual machines that can be used like physical servers?
  • DaaS
  • IaaS
  • SaaS
  • PaaS

 

  1. What happens when you virtualize a server?
  • It provides access to software maintained on the Cloud.
  • It provides remote access to other computers in another part of the world.
  • It puts many instances on a single physical server.
  • It keeps all the machines on a network synchronized.

 

  1. Which of the following best describes an intranet?
  • An intranet is a type of file transfer protocol.
  • An intranet is used to host a company’s internal websites and resources.
  • An intranet is a service that provides access to pre-configured virtual machines for a fee.
  • An intranet is a single server with many virtual instances on it.

 

  1. A network technician is unable to resolve a domain name. What is the first step the technician should take to troubleshoot the problem?
  • Verify that the DNS server is giving a correct address
  • Check that the network connection is working
  • Reconfigure the local host file
  • Restart the browser

 

Week 3 – Software and Platform Services

 

Which file system protocols are intended for network use? Select all that apply.

  • SMB
  • NFS
  • HTTPS
  • Fat32

 

Software Services

 

  1. What are some communication services you can utilize in your organization? Check all that apply.
  • Email
  • Chat applications
  • DNS
  • Phones

 

  1. What's the difference between POP3 and IMAP? Check all that apply.
  • POP3 can only download email to one local device.
  • IMAP can only download email to one local device.
  • POP3 is used for sending emails
  • IMAP can download emails onto multiple devices.

 

  1. True or false: Commercial-use and personal-use software licenses are essentially the same thing.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. What are the differences between TLS and SSL? Check all that apply.
  • TLS is the successor to SSL.
  • TLS is more secure than SSL.
  • SSL is more secure than TLS.
  • SSL is the successor to TLS.

 

File, Print, and Platform Services

 

  1. What is the name of a protocol that lets users share files over a network?
  • CUPS
  • Apache
  • DNS
  • NFS

 

  1. Which two of these methods could you use to set up printing in an organization?
  • Setting up a print server
  • Using a Cloud service to set up printers
  • Using MySQL – MySQL is a common database. Setting up a print server and using Cloud services are methods to set up printing.
  • Using FAT32

 

  1. When you have a web server, what service is used to enable HTTP requests to be processed?
  • The web server
  • A database server
  • An HTTP server
  • HTTP status codes

 

  1. Fill in the blank: You can use a(n) ______________to store large amounts of customer data for a website.
  • DNS server
  • NFS server
  • HTTP server
  • database server

 

  1. What is software that can modify, steal or delete data, and is a threat to the practice of BYOD (Bring Your Own Device)?
  • DLP software
  • MFA software
  • MDM software
  • Malware

 

Troubleshooting Platform Services

 

  1. HTTP status codes that begin with 4xx, like 404, indicate:
  • Redirections
  • Client-side errors
  • Server-side errors
  • Nowhere; these codes are successful

 

  1. HTTP status codes that begin with 5xx, like 501, indicate:
  • Server-side errors
  • Client-side errors
  • Redirections
  • Nowhere; these codes are successful

 

  1. What are tools that are built into browsers to help diagnose issues with the browsers?
  • Developer tools
  • Platform services
  • Database servers
  • HTTP web servers

 

  1. What do HTTP status codes beginning with 2xx indicate?
  • Client-side errors
  • Redirection
  • Server-side errors
  • Successful request

 

  1. Which of these leads to a 404 error?
  • You type in the human readable name for a site that no longer exists.
  • You type in the URL of a site instead of the human readable name (something ending with.com, .edu or any dot ending).
  • You type in a good address or readable name for a site, but the server holding the site is having problems.
  • You accidentally type in the wrong readable name, and you get to a different site than you wanted.

 

Software and Platform Services

 

  1. Which of the following are popular paid-for options for setting up IM services for your organization? Select all that apply.
  • IMAP
  • XMPP
  • Slack
  • HipChat

 

  1. What type of DNS record is used for email servers?
  • AAAA
  • A
  • MX
  • CNAME

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true about cloud software services? Select all that apply.
  • Software used as a business is usually different from software used as a consumer.
  • There are never limits on who can use cloud services software.
  • There are no stipulations (licensing agreements) on how cloud services software is used.
  • When setting up cloud services for your company, you might need to purchase added features for businesses and enterprises.

 

  1. If you manage an organization's website on a server, how do you enable TLS on the server so that the site can use HTTPS?
  • Install a digital certificate of trust on your web server
  • Enable SSL version 2.0 on your web server
  • Type HTTPS in your site URL instead of just HTTP
  • Reinstall your server OS and agree to a special licensing agreement

 

  1. If you don't want to set up your own dedicated hardware to use for network file storage, what are your other options?
  • Use a database server
  • Set up an HTTP server
  • Set up a NAS
  • Use a cloud file storage provider

 

  1. Company A is setting up a network of mostly Windows machines. Which networking file system protocol would you recommend for maximum interoperability?
  • SMB
  • Fat32
  • Ext4
  • NFS

 

  1. Which of these is a valid method of managing printer services in a commercial environment?
  • On Linux, use CUPS to manage printing services
  • On a Windows server, enable Print and Document Services, and add printers
  • Managing multiple printers separately
  • Using a cloud service provider to manage your printers through a web browser

 

  1. Which statements are true about setting up a web server? Select all that apply.
  • Apache is the most used web server on the Web
  • Web content is stored on the server’s localhost
  • DNS needs to be set up to allow outside access to the server via the Internet
  • Web server setup does not require DNS

 

  1. Which of these are examples of database software? Select all that apply.
  • MySQL
  • PostgreSQL
  • Apache
  • CUPS

 

  1. HTTP status codes are codes or numbers that indicate some sort of error or info message that occurred when trying to access a web resource. When a website is having issues on the server side, what number does the HTTP status code start with?
  • 4xx
  • 2xx
  • 6xx
  • 5xx

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true of XMPP? Select all that apply.
  • XMPP is a paid-for application for instant communication.
  • XMPP is an open source protocol used in instant messaging applications.
  • XMPP is used in Internet of Things applications.
  • XMPP is used in social networking services.

 

  1. Which of these is NOT an email protocol?
  • SMTP
  • IMAP
  • IRC
  • POP3

 

  1. Which of the following activities can users do on a properly configured file storage server?
  • Grant a digital certificate of trust
  • Modify shared files
  • Access a shared directory
  • Share files

 

  1. You're the sole IT employee at your company. Most of the computers in your fleet are Windows machines. Your boss wants you to set up a network file storage. What file service should you use?
  • An NFS server
  • A Database server
  • Samba services
  • An HTTP server

 

  1. Which printing language is device-dependent?
  • Ruby
  • A: PCL
  • PS
  • B: Python

 

  1. An employee sets up Apache HTTP Server. They type 127.0.0.1 in the browser to check that the content is there. What is the next step in the setup process?
  • Nothing, the web server setup is complete.
  • Assign a static IP address
  • Set up DNS so the server can be accessed through the Internet
  • Install CUPS

 

  1. Where does customer information, such as news articles, videos, large amounts of text, images, or audio files, generally get stored for web services?
  • On a database
  • On a file transfer protocol (FTP) server
  • On the local machine only
  • On a web server

 

  1. HTTP status codes are codes or numbers that indicate some sort of error or info message that occurred when trying to access a web resource. When an HTTP request is successful, what number does the HTTP status code start with?
  • 2xx
  • 4xx
  • 6xx

 

  1. Which email protocol is capable of sending emails?
  • POP3
  • MX DNS
  • SMTP
  • IMAP

 

  1. When a person inside your company is licensed to use software, what usually happens to their license if they leave the company?
  • The license can be transferred to someone else in the company.
  • The person takes the license with them.
  • A new license must be purchased by your company.
  • The license expires.

 

  1. Which of the following security protocols is used to format and transfer web content.
  • C: Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
  • The Transport Layer Security protocol (TLS)
  • The Secure Socket Layer protocol (SSL)
  • The SMB protocol (Samba)

 

  1. Company B is setting up commercial printing services on their network. Which of these are advantages of centrally managed commercial printers? Select all that apply.
  • Printers can be managed one at a time
  • Physically distant printers can be more easily managed
  • It provides a central interface to collect diagnostic reports, such as low toner levels
  • It allows the ability to deploy printer driver software so that your users can print from their computers

 

  1. What is the main function of a database system?
  • Databases allow us to store, query, filter, and manage large amounts of data
  • D: Databases store and retrieve files over a network
  • A database is a physical server that stores web files and the HTTP server software
  • Databases are a way of securing communication between a web server and client

 

  1. What’s the purpose of a file storage server?
  • To enable HTTPS
  • To centrally store files and manage access between files and groups
  • To manage files on a PC
  • To format disk partitions

 

  1. You're the sole IT employee at your company. Your boss wants the company to migrate away from using the current, paid-for chat application and use something free. What options could you use? Select all that apply.
  • Emails
  • IRC
  • HTTP
  • Open IM Chat applications, like Pidgin or Adium

 

  1. When installing software for your organization, who/what determines who can use the software and how to use, share, or modify the software?
  • A developer’s license agreement
  • International law
  • An IT support specialist
  • Company policy

 

  1. When browsing a website, what is a quick way to know that the site is secure?
  • The URL begins with tls
  • The URL begins with http
  • The URL begins with https
  • The website has a banner that says it’s secure

 

  1. Which statements are true about HTTPS and security protocols? Select all that apply.
  • HTTPS can be secured with Transport Layer Security protocol (TLS)
  • C: HTTPS is a secure version of the Hypertext Transfer Protocol.
  • B: HTTPS can be secured with Secure Socket Layer protocol (SSL)
  • D: SSL is more secure than TLS

 

  1. HTTP status codes are codes or numbers that indicate some sort of error or info message that occurred when trying to access a web resource. When a website is having issues on the client side, what number does the HTTP status code start with?
  • 6xx
  • 2xx
  • 5xx
  • 4xx

 

Week 4 – Directory Services

 

A Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) entry reads as follows: dn: CN=John Smith ,OU=Sysadmin,DC=jsmith,DC=com. \n. What is the common name of this entry?

  • CN=John Smith ,OU=Sysadmin,DC=jsmith,DC=com
    • jsmith
  • John Smith
  • Sysadmin

 

Introduction to Directory Services

 

  1. What does a directory server provide?
  • A real-time communication service.
  • A replication service.
  • A lookup service for an organization.
  • A network time service.

 

  1. What benefits does replication provide? Check all that apply.
  • Redundancy
  • Decreased latency
  • Virtualization
  • Enhanced security

 

  1. What is the most popular directory services protocol used today?
  • Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
  • Directory System Protocol
  • Directory Operational Binding Management Protocol
  • Directory Access Protocol

 

  1. Active Directory is the LDPA implementation for ________________.
  • MAC
  • Linux
  • Microsoft
  • Ubuntu

 

  1. The containers in a Directory Service are referred to as _____________.
  • user accounts
  • organized structure
  • organizational units (OUs)
  • subfolders

 

Centralized Management and LDAP

 

  1. Which of these are examples of centralized management? Check all that apply.
  • Role-based access control
  • Centralized configuration management
  • Copying configurations to various systems
  • Local authentication

 

  1. Which of these are components of an LDAP entry? Check all that apply.
  • Uncommon Name
  • Common Name
  • Organizational User
  • Distinguished Name

 

  1. What's does the LDAP Bind operation do exactly?
  • Modifies entries in a directory server
  • Looks up information in a directory server
  • Authenticates a client to the directory server
  • Changes the password for a user account on the directory server

 

  1. Which of the following are authentication types supported by the LDAP Bind operation? Check all that apply.
  • Anonymous
  • Simple
  • Complex
  • SASL

 

  1. Which of these are examples of centralized management? Check all that apply.
  • Centralized configuration management
  • Role-based access control
  • Copying configurations to various systems
  • Local authentication

 

  1. Which of these are components of an LDAP entry? Check all that apply.
  • Distinguished Name
  • Kerberos
  • Common Name
  • Uncommon Name

 

  1. What does the LDAP Bind operation do exactly?
  • Changes the password for a user account on the directory server
  • Modifies entries in a directory server
  • Authenticates a client to the directory server
  • Looks up information in a directory server

 

  1. Which of the following are authentication types supported by the LDAP Bind operation? Check all that apply.
  • Simple
  • Anonymous
  • Complex
  • SASL

 

  1. Which of the following are services provided for the Directory Services?
  • Accounting
  • Local authentication
  • Centralized Authentication
  • Authorization

 

Active Directory

 

  1. What is the difference between a policy and a preference?
  • They are the exact same thing.
  • A policy is used to set a preference.
  • A policy can be modified by a local user, while a preference is enforced by AD.
  • A policy is enforced by AD, while a preference can be modified by a local user.

 

  1. Select the right order of enforcement of GPOs:
  • Site –> Domain –> OU
  • OU –> Domain –> Sit
  • Domain –> Site –> OU
  • Site –> OU –> Domain

 

  1. What can be used to determine what policies will be applied to a given machine?
  • An RSOP report
  • A control panel
  • gpupdate
  • A test domain

 

  1. Which of the following could prevent logging into a domain-joined computer? Check all that apply.
  • Unable to reach the domain controller
  • The are time and date are incorrect
  • The user account is locked
  • Your computer is connected to Wifi

 

  1. How does a client discover the address of a domain controller?
  • It sends a broadcast to the local network
  • It is provided via DHCP
  • It is pushed via an AD GPO
  • It makes a DNS query, asking for the SRV record for the domain

 

Directory Services

 

  1. Directory services store information in a hierarchical structure. Which statements about Organizational Units (OUs) of a directory service hierarchy are true? (Choose all that apply)
  • Sub-member OUs inherit the characteristics of their parent OU.
  • Specific files within an OU, or container, are called “objects”.
  • Changes can be made to one sub-OU without affecting other sub-OUs within the same parent.
  • Parent OUs inherit characteristics of their sub-members.

 

  1. Which directory service software would be used exclusively on a Windows network?
  • DISP
  • DSP
  • Active Directory
  • OpenLDAP

 

  1. What roles does a directory server play in centralized management? (Choose all that apply)
  • Centralized authentication
  • Confidentiality
  • Authorization
  • Accounting

 

  1. In LDAP, what does dn stand for at the beginning of the entry?
  • Domain name
  • Distinguished name
  • Distinguished number
  • Distinct name

 

  1. When logging into a website that uses a directory service, what command authenticates your username and password?
  • Remove
  • Modify
  • Bind
  • Add

 

  1. In Active Directory, which of the following can be functions of the Domain? (Choose all that apply)
  • A DNS server
  • A Kerberos authentication server
  • A server that holds a replica of the Active Directory database
  • A container

 

  1. Which of these statements are true about Domain Controllers (DCs)? (Choose all that apply)
  • Changes that are safe to be made by multiple Domain Controllers at once are tasked by granting them Flexible Single-Master Operations.
  • The default Organizational Unit (OU), called Domain Controllers, contains all Domain Controllers in the domain.
  • Delegation can be used in Active Directory.
  • Always use the Domain Admin or Enterprise Admin for day-to-day use.

 

  1. Juan, a network user, sends an email to you, the IT admin of the network, stating that his account is locked because he has lost his password. Select all appropriate steps in helping Juan resolve his situation. (Choose all that apply)
  • Ask Juan questions to help him remember his password.
  • Check the “User must change password at next logon” box so a new password must be created at the next logon.
  • Issue a temporary password.
  • Make sure the password reset is authorized by verifying that Juan is who he says he is.

 

  1. What is the difference between a group policy and a group policy preference?
  • Preferences are reapplied every 90 minutes, and policies are more of a settings template.
  • A policy is editable only by admins, but anyone can edit a group policy preference.
  • Policies are reapplied every 90 minutes, and preferences are a settings template that the user can change on the computer.
  • A preference is editable only by admins, but anyone can edit a policy.

 

  1. A client discovers the address of a domain controller by making a DNS query for which record?
  • AAAA record
  • TXT record
  • SRV record
  • A record

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Instead of assigning access for each user account individually, ________ is a more efficient and easier-to-manage approach.
  • centralized authentication
  • centralized management
  • active directory
  • LDAP

 

  1. If a system administrator needs to give access to a resource to everyone in a domain, what group in Active Directory can they use?
  • All Users
  • Domain Users
  • Resource Users
  • Enterprise Admins

 

  1. Which of these statements are true about managing through Active Directory? (Choose all that apply)
  • Domain Local, Global, and Universal are examples of group scopes.
  • Distribution groups can be used to assign permission to resources.
  • The default group’s Domain Users and Domain Admins are security groups.
  • ADAC uses PowerShell.

 

  1. Which of the following are common reasons a group policy doesn't take effect correctly? (Choose all that apply)
  • Kerberos may have issues with the UTC time on the clock.
  • Fast Logon Optimization may delay GPO changes from taking effect.
  • Replication failure may occur.
  • The GPO may be linked to the OU that contains the computer.

 

  1. Which of the following is not an advantage of replication of data in terms of directory services?
  • It allows local management of user accounts.
  • It decreases latency when accessing the directory service.
  • It allows flexibility, allowing for easy creation of new object types as needs change.
  • It provides redundancy for data.

 

  1. A Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) entry reads as follows: dn: CN=John Smith ,OU=Sysadmin,DC=jsmith,DC=com. \n. What is the organizational unit of this entry?
  • CN=John Smith ,OU=Sysadmin,DC=jsmith,DC=com
  • Sysadmin
  • John Smith
  • jsmith

 

  1. A particular computer on your network is a member of several GPOs. GPO-A has precedence set to 1. GPO-B has precedence set to 2, and GPO-C has precedence set to 3. According to the given levels of precedence, what will be the resultant set of policy (RSOP) for this machine?
  • GPO-A will take precedence and overwrite any conflicting settings.
  • The computer will default to local policy due to the confusion.
  • GPO-B will take precedence and overwrite any conflicting settings.
  • GPO-C will take precedence and overwrite any conflicting settings.

 

  1. You'd like to change the minimum password length policy in the Default Domain Policy group policy preference (GPO). What's the best way to go about doing this?
  • Edit the Windows Registry to change group policy settings
  • Manually edit config files in SYSVOL
  • Open ADAC and edit policy settings there
  • Open the Group Policy Management Console by running gpmc.msc from the CLI

 

  1. How are things organized in a directory server?
  • By a hierarchical model of objects and containers
  • By a flat text file
  • By a relational database structure
  • By a series of nested groups

 

  1. Which of these are advantages of centralized management using directory services? (Choose all that apply)
  • Configuration can take place on each device.
  • Configuration management is centralized.
  • Access and authorization are managed in one place.
  • Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) can organize user groups centrally.

 

  1. To authenticate user accounts on a computer against AD, what must be done to the computer first?
  • Enable the administrator account
  • Configure remote logging
  • Join it to the domain
  • Configure the firewall

 

  1. Which of the following are examples of Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)-based directory server software? (Choose all that apply)
  • ADUC
  • OpenLDAP
  • Microsoft’s Active Directory
  • RDP

 

  1. Which of the following are ways to authenticate to an LDAP server? (Choose all that apply)
  • Simple bind
  • Anonymous bind
  • SASL
  • PGP

 

  1. Which of these statements about Active Directory (AD) are true? (Choose all that apply)
  • AD includes a tool called the Active Directory Authentication Center, or ADAC.
  • AD can “speak” LDAP.
  • AD is used as a central repository of group policy objects, or GPOs.
  • AD is incompatible with Linux, OS X, and other non-Windows hosts.

 

  1. Which directory standard was approved in 1988 and includes protocols like the Directory Access Protocol?
  • LDAP
  • Active Directory
  • DISP
  • X.500

 

  1. By default, Active Directory adds new computers to what group?
  • New Computers
  • Domain Computers
  • Added Computers
  • All Computers

 

Week 5 – Data Recovery & Backups

 

Which of the following is an advantage of off-site backups?

  • There is less bandwidth usage
    • Data is more secure because of less outbound traffic
    • There is quicker data access
  • Data is safe in case of disaster

 

Planning for Data Recovery

 

  1. How can you recover from an unexpected data loss event? Select all that apply.
  • Restore data from backups
  • Design a disaster recovery plan
  • Write a post-mortem report
  • Recover data from damaged devices

 

  1. What is it best to store backups, physically?
  • On-site
  • Across multiple locations
  • Off-site
  • In a safe

 

  1. Which of these should be included in your organization’s backups? Select all that apply.
  • Sales databases
  • A downloads folder
  • Firewall configurations
  • Family vacation photos

 

  1. What's magnetic tape backup media best suited for?
  • Low-latency cached data
  • Cheap backup systems
  • Quick and efficient backups
  • Long-term archival data

 

  1. Why is it important to test backups and restoration procedures? Select all that apply.
  • To prove the system is flawless and the IT team deserves a pay raise.
  • To ensure that relevant data is included in the backups
  • To reduce the size of backup data
  • To ensure backups work and data can be restored from them

 

  1. Which of the following backup types are most space-efficient?
  • Full backups
  • Differential backups
  • Incremental backups

 

Disaster Recovery Plans

 

  1. What elements should a disaster recovery plan cover? Select all that apply.
  • Drastic measures
  • Detection measures
  • Preventative measures
  • Recovery measures

 

  1. Why are detection measures included in a disaster recovery plan?
  • Because it’s important to know when a disaster occurs
  • They aren’t
  • Because they prevent data loss
  • Because they make recovering from data loss easier

 

  1. What are preventative measures?
  • Measures that are enacted after a disaster has occurred.
  • Measures that are meant to alert you and your team that a disaster has occurred that can impact operations.
  • Redundant systems
  • Measures that cover any procedures or systems in place that will proactively minimize the impact of a disaster.

 

  1. What are good detection measures to incorporate in your organization? Select all that apply.
  • Redundant power supplies
  • Environmental monitoring
  • Backing up firewall rules
  • System performance monitoring

 

  1. What are good recovery measures to incorporate in your organization? Select all that apply.
  • Restoring server configs from backup
  • Following detailed recovery plan documentation
  • Monitoring for internet line outages
  • Maintaining redundant servers

 

 

Post-Mortems

 

  1. What's the main purpose of writing a post-mortem?
  • To assign legal liability
  • To learn from mistakes and how to improve in the future
  • To assign blame for mistakes
  • To scare people into avoiding risky behavior

 

  1. What should the timeline in a post-mortem include? Check all that apply.
  • A detailed analysis of the incident, including root cause and scope
  • Actions taken before, during, and after the event
  • Detailed dates and times
  • A summary of the incident and how long it lasted

 

  1. What is one aspect of post-mortems that are often overlooked?
  • What went wrong
  • The summary
  • Timelines
  • What went well

 

  1. What is the next step after writing a post-mortem report?
  • Share the report with other people on your team and/or other teams
  • Do not disclose the report to anyone
  • Destroy the report
  • Nothing, there are no additional steps after writing the report

 

  1. What does the summary section of a post-mortem cover?
  • Description of the incident, how long it lasted, the impact of the incident, and how it was fixed.
  • list of specific actions that should be taken to avoid the same scenario from happening again.
  • Opening catchphrase and witty remarks to introduce the topic
  • Description of the incident

 

Data Recovery & Backups

 

  1. The unthinkable happens and disaster strikes, crippling your network. You implement your disaster plan, but it doesn't go smoothly. You decide to investigate. What is a common term in the IT community for this investigation?
  • Recovery inspection probe
  • Post-mortem
  • After-outage analysis
  • Post-disaster inquiry

 

  1. What are advantages of on-site backups? Select all that apply.
  • Data is more secure because of less outbound traffic
  • * D: There is less bandwidth usage
  • There is quicker data access
  • B: Data is safe in case of disaster

 

  1. Which of these are common backup tools you might consider when designing a backup solution? Select all that apply.
  • Regedit
  • Backup and Restore
  • Time Machine
  • Rsync

 

  1. What are good reasons to do yearly disaster recovery testing? Select all that apply.
  • To create downtime
  • To be prepared for all possible snags or problems
  • To ensure multiple people have appropriate rights and training to restore operations
  • To identify additional vulnerabilities

 

  1. Which backup method saves copies of all important files and data at each backup?
  • RAID array
  • Differential backups
  • Complete backup
  • Incremental backup

 

  1. Which of the following issues often make reliable backups for client devices more challenging than for infrastructure devices? Select all that apply.
  • There are likely to be more client devices to backup compared to infrastructure devices.
  • Data stored on client devices is more valuable than data stored on infrastructure devices.
  • Infrastructure backups do not require complicated scheduling or configuration.
  • Many client devices are mobile and won’t be in the office all the time.

 

  1. Some steps of the disaster recovery plan might be time sensitive to ensure there is no data loss or equipment damage. Which element of the disaster recovery plan is designed to address this time sensitivity?
  • Detection measures
  • Disciplinary measures
  • Corrective or recovery measures
  • Preventative measures

 

  1. You are performing a network risk assessment to develop your disaster recovery plan. Which of these are examples of corrective or recovery measures? Select all that apply.
  • Hardware repair and replacement
  • Redundancy solutions
  • Restoring data from backup
  • Rebuilding and reconfiguring services

 

  1. What are some benefits of a post-mortem? Select all that apply.
  • To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
  • To understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
  • To punish mistakes
  • To foster a culture where it’s OK to make mistakes

 

  1. Which of the following are part of the five primary elements that make up a post-mortem report? Select all that apply.
  • An accounting of financial costs associated with preventative systems
  • A list of specific actions that should be taken to avoid the same scenario from happening again
  • *C: A description of root causes
  • D: Backup procedures

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. When designing a data backup and recovery plan, what’s the first thing to figure out?
  • Encryption and bandwidth requirements
  • How much total data you currently have
  • What data you need to backup
  • Future growth in data storage needs

 

  1. A data backup strategy needs to prioritize important data and only back up what is necessary for operations. Assuming storage limitations, which of these is LEAST important to back up?
  • Emails
  • User downloads
  • Databases
  • Financial spreadsheets

 

  1. What's the optimal recommended backup storage strategy?
  • Off-site backups
  • On-site backups
  • A combination of on-site and off-site backups
  • Tape backups

 

  1. Common concerns with backups are disk failure, lack of redundancy, and increasing disk capacity. Which backup method addresses these concerns?
  • Differential backups
  • Incremental backup
  • Complete backup
  • RAID array

 

  1. Which type of backup only saves the parts of data that have changed within files since the last backup took place?
  • Differential backups
  • RAID array
  • Incremental backup
  • Complete backup

 

  1. Which of the following are advantages of cloud storage services? Select all that apply.
  • Users can sync and backup files across platforms and devices.
  • They make it easy for users to configure what files or folders they want to backup.
  • They allow everyone to access a person’s files
  • User backups don’t require complicated scheduling.

 

  1. You are performing a network risk assessment to develop your disaster recovery plan. Which of these are examples of detection measures? Select all that apply.
  • Using an alert system for outages
  • Monitoring system testing
  • Testing knowledge and readiness for disaster
  • Conducting regular, automated backups

 

  1. When are post-mortem reports usually created? Select all that apply.
  • To punish mistakes
  • When finance asks IT to justify the cost of its preventative systems
  • When something goes wrong
  • At the end of a project

 

  1. Which of the following are components of a post-mortem report? Select all that apply.
  • A brief summary
  • An explanation of resolution and recovery efforts
  • All log data
  • A detailed timeline of key events

 

  1. Which of the following is a critical part of data recovery?
  • Creating power redundancies
  • Effectively backing up data
  • Port forwarding
  • Stocking replacement drives

 

  1. Which of the following are key parts of the disaster recovery testing process? Select all that apply.
  • Document restoration procedures
  • Replace old hardware
  • Run simulations of disaster events
  • Update all software

 

  1. Which element of the disaster recovery plan is designed to proactively minimize the impact of a disaster?
  • Preventative measures
  • Disciplinary measures
  • Corrective or recovery measures
  • Detection measures

 

  1. You are performing a network risk assessment to develop your disaster recovery plan. Which of these are examples of preventative measures? Select all that apply.
  • Operational documentation
  • Regular, automated backups
  • Redundancy solutions
  • Alert system for outages

 

  1. What are the goals of a disaster recovery plan? Select all that apply.
  • To prevent significant data loss
  • To predict disasters before they happen
  • To keep system downtimes to a minimum
  • To prevent disasters from impacting operations

 

  1. What's the purpose of a post-mortem report?
  • To learn from mistakes
  • To test systems
  • To assign legal liability
  • To identify bad employees

 

  1. Which backup type only backs up files that have changed since the last run?
  • Full backup
    • Partial backup
    • Incremental backup
  • Differential backup

 

  1. Why is it important for post-incident analysis to highlight things that went well?
  • It helps demonstrate the effectiveness of systems in place.
  • It improves team morale.
  • It’s a way to get more money for preventative systems.
  • It minimizes the importance of what went wrong.

 

  1. What are advantages of on-site backups? Select all that apply.
  • There is less bandwidth usage
  • Data is more secure because of less outbound traffic
  • There is quicker data access
  • Data is safe in case of disaster

 

  1. What is the standard medium for long-term archival backup data storage?
  • USB drives
  • Optical disks
  • Magnetic tapes
  • Floppy disks

 

  1. Which of the following are popular cloud storage platforms? Select all that apply.
  • Dropbox
  • Rsync
  • Google Drive
  • Apple iCloud

 

Course 5 – IT Security: Defense against the digital dark arts

 

Week 1 – Understanding Security Threats

 

What type of malware allows an attacker to modify an operating system using admin level tools?

  • A DoS attack
    • A keylogger
  • A rootkit
  • A zero day vulnerability

 

What type of attack involves injecting malicious code into a website to hijack a session cookie?

 

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks
  • Ping flood attacks
  • Password attacks
  • SQL injections

 

Malicious Software

 

  1. In the CIA Triad, "Confidentiality" means ensuring that data is:
  • accurate and was not tampered with.
  • available and that people can access it.
  • not accessible by unwanted parties.
  • accessible anonymously.

 

  1. In the CIA Triad, "Integrity" means ensuring that data is:
  • available and that people can access it.
  • truthful and honest.
  • accurate and was not tampered with.
  • not accessible by unwanted parties.

 

  1. In the CIA Triad, "Availability" means ensuring that data is:
  • available to anyone from anywhere.
  • available and people can access it.
  • not accessible by unwanted parties.
  • accurate and was not tampered with.

 

  1. What's the relationship between a vulnerability and an exploit?
  • An exploit creates a vulnerability in a system.
  • An exploit takes advantage of a vulnerability to run arbitrary code or gain access.
  • They’re unrelated.
  • A vulnerability takes advantage of an exploit to run arbitrary code or gain access.

 

  1. Which statement is true for both a worm and a virus?
  • They infect other files with malicious code.
  • They’re self-replicating and self-propagating.
  • They don’t cause any harm to the target system.
  • They’re undetectable by antimalware software.

 

  1. Check all examples of types of malware:
  • Adware
  • Viruses
  • Worms
  • Key Generators

 

  1. What are the characteristics of a rootkit? Check all that apply.
  • Is harmless
  • Is difficult to detect
  • Is destructive
  • Provides elevated credentials

 

Network Attacks

 

  1. A person at a coffee shop leaves a laptop logged in with a token and walks away for a short time. An attacker goes to the laptop and starts impersonating the laptop’s user on the website the user is logged into. What kind of attack is this?
  • A ransomware attack.
  • A rogue AP attack
  • A session hijacking attack
  • A trojan attack.

 

  1. Which one of these shows why a DNS cache poisoning attack is dangerous?
  • It lets attackers access a site’s database and cause damage by using database commands.
  • It allows an attacker to remotely control your computer.
  • It’s not actually dangerous.
  • It allows an attacker to redirect targets to malicious web servers.

 

  1. Which of the following is true of a DDoS attack?
  • This type of attack is used to steal a token and hijack a session.
  • The attack is used to redirect web traffic to sites run by attackers.
  • The attack traffic comes from lots of different hosts.
  • The attack comes from one source sending a flood of SYN packets.

 

  1. Which one of the following results from a denial-of-service attack?
  • Service unreachable
  • Email address theft
  • Data destruction
  • Malware infection

 

  1. Which of these describes a rogue AP attack?
  • An attacker uses a form of malware to perform admin level modification to a victim’s operating system.
  • A user tries to get to a service, but the service can’t be reached because an attacker has overloaded it with packets
  • An employee at a company plugs a router into the company network to make a simple wireless network. An attacker standing outside the building takes advantage of this and goes onto the wireless network.
  • Company employees think they are connecting to the company network, but they are connecting to a fake, identical network controlled by an attacker.

 

Other Attacks

 

  1. How can you protect against client-side injection attacks? Check all that apply.
  • Use a SQL database
  • Use data sanitization
  • Utilize strong passwords
  • Use input validation.

 

  1. An attacker uses software that continuously tries different combinations of characters to gain access to something password protected. What kind of attack is this?
  • A brute-force attack
  • A POD (Ping of Death) attack
  • A dictionary attack
  • A baiting attack

 

  1. Which of these are devices that let employees enter buildings and restricted areas and access secured computer systems at any time, day or night?
  • Door locks
  • Equipment locks
  • Badge readers
  • Bollards

 

  1. Two people arrive at a building saying they are repair workers. An employee trusts them and lets them in. As soon as they have access to the building, they hack into a computer and steal confidential information. What kind of attack is this?
  • A tailgating attack
  • A spoofing attack
  • A zero day vulnerability attack
  • A phishing attack

 

  1. Which of these is an XSS (Cross-site scripting) injection attack?
  • An attack where attackers fool an employee into letting them into a restricted area or building
  • An attack that targets a whole website and uses database commands to delete or steal data and run other malicious commands
  • An attack that overloads a system with ICMP echo requests to overwhelm it, and to prevent legitimate users from accessing it.
  • An attack that inserts malicious code into a website and targets the users of a service

 

Understanding Security Threats

 

  1. An IT professional makes a backup of critical information from a company’s system so it can still be accessed if the system is attacked. Which key principle for designing information security policies does this represent?
  • The availability principle
  • The intelligence principle
  • The risk principle
  • The integrity principle

 

  1. Which of the following is true of black hat and white hat hackers?
  • Black hats are malicious. White hats identify weaknesses to help mitigate threats.
  • Black hats try to find weaknesses, but white hats don’t.
  • Neither black hats nor white hats can be trusted.
  • Black hats work with owners to fix problems. White hats just try to get into a system.

 

  1. After a user downloads a free software product, the computer’s browser automatically opens and jumps to random product pages. What kind of malicious software is this?
  • Adware
  • A worm
  • A Keylogger
  • A rootkit

 

  1. An unhappy systems administrator installed malware that attacked after a timed event, rather than when it was installed. What type of malware does this describe?
  • Ransomware
  • A logic bomb
  • A rootkit
  • Spyware

 

  1. A victim connects to a network they think is legitimate, but the network is really an identical network controlled by a hacker. What type of network attack are they a victim of?
  • A Denial of Service (DoS)
  • A logic bomb
  • An evil twin
  • DNS cache poisoning

 

  1. Which type of network-based attack prevents legitimate users from accessing a system by overwhelming the network?
  • A brute force password attack
  • An injection attack
  • A Denial of Service (DoS) attack
  • A malware attack

 

  1. An attacker sends a large number of SYN packets, but does not send any ACK messages back. The connection stays open and uses up the source’s resources. What is this attack called?
  • A zero day exploit
  • A half-open attack
  • A DNS cache poisoning attack
  • A ping flood

 

  1. Which of the following measures can prevent injection attacks? Select all that apply.
  • Data sanitization
  • Log analysis systems
  • Input validation
  • Flood guards

 

  1. What kind of attack keeps trying different combinations of characters and letters until it gets password access to a system?
  • An Injection attack
  • A phishing attack
  • A dictionary attack
  • A brute force attack

 

  1. An email message tells a user there is a problem with the user’s bank account. The email directs the user to a login page that steals the user’s information. What is this called?
  • Phishing
  • Tailgating
  • Injection
  • Denial of Service

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of the CIA triad’s confidentiality principle in action?
  • Preventing an unwanted download
  • Making sure data hasn’t been tampered with
  • Protecting online accounts with a password
  • Preventing data loss

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of a zero-day vulnerability?
  • A user accidentally loads malware onto a computer that logs the user’s keypresses and uses them to get confidential information.
  • After a user downloads and starts a piece of software, it starts showing ads and collecting data.
  • A group of hackers finds a flaw in a new software product and takes advantage of it before the vendor or developer finds it.
  • A user voluntarily downloads a piece of software hoping it will be useful, but instead it lets hackers access the user’s computer.

 

  1. What kind of malware can block access to data and decrease the availability of security by holding the system hostage?
  • Spyware
  • A logic bomb
  • Ransomware
  • Adware

 

  1. What is it called when a hacker gets into a system through a secret entryway to gain remote access to the computer?
  • Ransomware
  • A backdoor
  • Adware
  • A Trojan

 

  1. Which of the following best helps you strengthen your password?
  • Use passwords from a precompiled list
  • Incorporate symbols, numbers, and capital letters
  • Choose the name of a favorite movie as a password
  • Use the name of a beloved pet as a password

 

  1. An attacker leaves a flash drive loaded with malware on a table. Someone plugs the drive into their computer to see what’s on it and accidentally installs malware. What kind of attack is this?
  • Baiting
  • DDoS
  • Phishing
  • Tailgating

 

  1. What's the difference between a virus and a worm?
  • Worms replicate through files, but viruses live on their own.
  • Viruses do not replicate, but worms do.
  • Worms replicate, but viruses do not.
  • Viruses replicate through files, but worms live on their own.

 

  1. An employee at a company plugs a router into the corporate network to make a simple wireless network. An attacker outside the building uses it to get access to the corporate network. What is the name of this type of attack?
  • SYN flood attack
  • A rogue AP (Access Point) attack
  • A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
  • A DNS cache poisoning attack

 

  1. Which of the following can occur during a ping of death (POD) attack? Select all that apply.
  • Phishing
  • Baiting
  • A buffer overflow
  • Execution of malicious code

 

  1. What is it called when a hacker takes down multiple services very quickly with the help of botnets?
  • Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS)
  • Cross-site Scripting (XSS)
  • A SQL injection
  • A password attack

 

  1. If a hacker targets a vulnerable website by running commands that delete the website's data in its database, what type of attack did the hacker perform?
  • Cross-site Scripting (XSS)
  • SQL injection
  • A dictionary attack
  • A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack

 

  1. Fill in the blank: Phishing, spoofing, and tailgating are examples of ________ attacks.
  • Network
  • Social engineering
  • Malware
  • Injection

 

  1. In the terminology of information security, what is a vulnerability?
  • The possibility of suffering a loss in the event of an attack
  • A program that entices users to download it, then installs malware on their systems
  • A piece of malware that records each keypress by the user and gathers confidential information
  • A flaw in the code of an application that can be exploited

 

  1. What is a tool that protects passwords by checking whether the input is coming from a machine or a human?
  • A firewall
  • A CAPTCHA
  • A key logger
  • Antimalware software

 

  1. Which one of the following is a type of DoS attack?
  • A brute force attack
  • A rogue AP attack
  • A SYN flood attack
  • A DNS cache poisoning attack

 

Week 2 – Pelcgbybtl (Cryptology)

 

Symmetric Encryption

 

  1. What are the components that make up a cryptosystem? Check all that apply.
  • Key generation algorithms
  • Encryption algorithms
  • Transmission algorithms
  • Decryption algorithms

 

  1. What is steganography?
  • The practice of encoding messages
  • The study of languages
  • The study of stegosauruses
  • The practice of hiding messages

 

  1. What makes an encryption algorithm symmetric?
  • High speed
  • Very large key sizes
  • Different keys used for encryption and decryption
  • The same keys used for encryption and decryption

 

  1. What's the difference between a stream cipher and a block cipher?
  • Stream ciphers can’t save encrypted data to disk.
  • Stream ciphers encrypt data as a continuous stream, while block ciphers operate on chunks of data.
  • Block ciphers are only used for block device encryption.
  • There is no difference.

 

  1. True or false: The smaller the encryption key is, the more secure the encrypted data is.
  • TRUE
  • FALSE

 

Public Key or Asymmetric Encryption

 

  1. Which of the following do asymmetric cryptography systems provide? Select all that apply.
  • Confidentiality
  • Availability
  • Authenticity
  • Non-repudiation

 

  1. What advantage does asymmetric encryption have over symmetric encryption?
  • They have very fast performance.
  • They allow secure communication over untrusted channels.
  • They’re more secure.
  • They’re easier to implement.

 

  1. What's a common application for asymmetric algorithms?
  • Full disk encryption
  • Secure password storage
  • Secure key exchange
  • Random number generation

 

  1. What do we call a bit of information that allows authentication of a received message?
  • Asymmetric encryption
  • RSA
  • Symmetric encryption
  • MAC (Message Authentication Codes)

 

  1. Which form of encryption does the US NEST recommend?
  • NSA
  • DSA
  • EC
  • DH

 

Hashing

 

  1. How is hashing different from encryption?
  • Hashing operations are one-directional.
  • It is less secure.
  • It is faster.
  • Hashing is meant for large amounts of data while encryption is meant for small amounts of data.

 

  1. What is a hash collision?
  • When two different files generate the same hash digest.
  • When a hash digest is reversed to recover the original.
  • When two identical files generate different hash digests.
  • When two different hashing algorithms produce the same hash.

 

  1. How is a Message Integrity Check (MIC) different from a Message Authentication Code (MAC)?
  • A MIC only hashes the message while a MAC incorporates a secret key.
  • They’re the same thing.
  • A MAC requires a password while a MIC does not.
  • A MIC is more reliable than a MAC.

 

  1. How can one defend against brute-force password attacks? Check all that apply.
  • Incorporate salts into password hashing.
  • Run passwords through the hashing function multiple times.
  • Enforce the use of strong passwords.
  • Store passwords in a rainbow table.

 

  1. ______ is a type of function or operation that takes in an arbitrary data input and maps it to an output of a fixed size, called a hash or a digest.
  • Phishing
  • A hash function
  • Cryptography
  • Secure key exchange

 

Cryptography Applications

 

  1. Which three of these pieces of information does a digital certificate contain?
  • Identifying information of the certificate owner
  • Public key data
  • Private key data
  • Digital signature

 

  1. Which type of encryption does SSL/TLS use?
  • Neither
  • Both
  • Asymmetric encryption
  • Symmetric encryption

 

  1. Which two of these are functions a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) can perform?
  • Define the creation, storage, and distribution of digital certificates
  • Malware detection
  • Data binding and sealing
  • Remote attestation

 

  1. Which of these is a system that defines the creation, storage, and distribution of digital certificates?
  • PKI
  • CA
  • DSA
  • SHA-3

 

  1. Which of these is a mechanism that lets you remotely connect a network or host to an internal private network while passing data over a public channel?
  • IPsec
  • L2TP
  • VPN
  • PGP

 

Practice Quiz - Pelcgbybtl (Cryptology)

 

  1. Plaintext is the original message, while _____ is the encrypted message.
  • ciphertext
  • algorithm
  • digest
  • cipher

 

  1. The specific function of converting plaintext into ciphertext is called a(n) ______.
  • integrity check
  • encryption algorithm
  • permutation
  • data protection standard

 

  1. Studying how often letters and pairs of letters occur in a language is referred to as _______.
  • frequency analysis
  • codebreaking
  • espionage
  • cryptography

 

  1. The practice of hiding messages instead of encoding them is referred to as ______.
  • obfuscation
  • hashing
  • encryption
  • steganography

 

  1. ROT13 and a Caesar cipher are examples of _______.
  • substitution ciphers
  • asymmetric encryption
  • digital signatures
  • steganography

 

  1. DES, RC4, and AES are examples of ______ encryption algorithms.
  • symmetric
  • weak
  • asymmetric
  • strong

 

  1. Which of the following are necessary components for encryption and decryption operations when using an asymmetric encryption system? Check all that apply.
  • Public key
  • Random number generator
  • Digest
  • Private key

 

  1. To create a public key signature, use the ______ key.
  • public
  • private
  • decryption
  • decryption

 

  1. Using an asymmetric cryptosystem provides which of the following benefits? Check all that apply.
  • Non-repudiation
  • Confidentiality
  • Hashing
  • Authenticity

 

  1. If two different files result in the same hash, it is referred to as a ________.
  • key collision
  • hash collision
  • coincidence
  • mistake

 

Week 3 – AAA Security (Not Roadside Assistance)

 

Authentication

 

  1. How is authentication different from authorization?
  • Authentication is verifying access to a resource; authorization is verifying an identity.
  • Authentication is identifying a resource; authorization is verifying access to an identity.
  • They’re the same thing.
  • Authentication is verifying an identity; authorization is verifying access to a resource.

 

  1. What are some characteristics of a strong password? Check all that apply,
  • Includes numbers and special characters
  • Is used across accounts and systems
  • Contains dictionary words
  • Is at least eight characters long

 

  1. In a multi-factor authentication scheme, a password can be thought of as:
  • something you have.
  • something you use.
  • something you know.
  • something you are.

 

  1. What are some drawbacks to using biometrics for authentication? Check all that apply.
  • Biometric authentication is difficult or impossible to change if compromised.
  • Biometrics are easy to share.
  • There are potential privacy concerns.
  • Biometric authentication is much slower than alternatives.

 

  1. In what way are U2F tokens more secure than OTP generators?
  • They can’t be cloned.
  • They’re password-protected.
  • They’re cheaper.
  • They’re resistant to phishing attacks.

 

  1. What elements of a certificate are inspected when a certificate is verified? Check all that apply.
  • Trust of the signatory CA
  • “Not valid before” date
  • Certificate key size
  • “Not valid after” date

 

  1. What is a CRL?
  • Certificate Revocation List
  • Certificate Recording Language
  • Caramel Raspberry Lemon
  • Certified Recursive Listener

 

  1. What are the names of similar entities that a Directory server organizes entities into?
  • Clusters
  • Groups
  • Tress
  • Organizational Units

 

  1. True or false: The Network Access Server handles the actual authentication in a RADIUS scheme.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. True or false: Clients authenticate directly against the RADIUS server.
  • True
  • False

 

  1. What does a Kerberos authentication server issue to a client that successfully authenticates?
  • An encryption key
  • A ticket-granting ticket
  • A master password
  • A digital certificate

 

  1. What advantages does single sign-on offer? Check all that apply.
  • It reduces the total number of credentials,
  • It enforces multifactor authentication.
  • It reduces time spent authenticating.
  • It provides encrypted authentication.

 

  1. What does OpenID provide?
  • Certificate signing
  • Digital signatures
  • Authentication delegation
  • Cryptographic hashing

 

Authorization and Accounting

 

  1. What role does authorization play?
  • It determines whether or not an entity has access to a resource.
  • It verifies passwords.
  • It verifies an entity’s identity.
  • It provides strong encryption.

 

  1. What does OAuth provide?
  • Confidentiality
  • Secure communications
  • Access delegation
  • Integrity

 

  1. How is auditing related to accounting?
  • Accounting is reviewing records, while auditing is recording access and usage.
  • Accounting is recording access and usage, while auditing is reviewing these records.
  • They’re not related.
  • They’re the same thing.

 

  1. What is an example of a screen lock method?
  • OS updates
  • Facial recognition
  • Device encryption
  • Firewalls

 

  1. What is a common mobile device security threat?
  • SQL Injection
  • DDoS
  • Insecure Wi-Fi and “meddler-in-the-middle” attacks
  • Zero-day attacks

 

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting Quiz

 

  1. Fill in the blank: In the world of AAA security, “authz” is short for _____.
  • authoritarian
  • authorization
  • authored
  • authentication

 

  1. In the three A’s of security (AAA), what is the process of proving who you claim to be?
  • Authentication
  • Authored
  • Authorization
  • Accounting

 

  1. Which of the following are valid multi-factor authentication factors? Select all that apply.
  • Something you have
  • Something you know
  • Something you did
  • Something you are

 

  1. Which of the following might serve as a multifactor authentication mechanism when used along with a password? Select all that apply.
  • PIN
  • Passphrase
  • Bank card
  • Fingerprint

 

  1. If an organization want to issue and sign client certificates, what will it need to set up?
  • A CA infrastructure
  • An LDAP infrastructure
  • An ID infrastructure
  • A CRL infrastructure

 

  1. In LDAP language, what do we call the folder an object belongs to?
  • A distinguished name (DN)
  • An organizational unit (OU)
  • TLS
  • A data information tree

 

  1. Fill in the blank: The authentication server is to authentication as the ticket granting service is to _____.
  • integrity
  • identification
  • authorization
  • verification

 

  1. Consider the following scenario: Multiple client switches and routers have been set up at a small military base. The network team decided to implement Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), along with Kerberos, and an external Lightweight

 

Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) service. What is the primary reason TACACS+ was chosen for this?

  • NIPRNet
  • Network access
  • *A: Device administration
  • Single Sign-On

 

  1. Consider the following scenario: A network admin deployed a Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) system so other admins can properly manage multiple switches and routers on the Local Area Network (LAN). The system will keep track and log admin access to each device and the changes made. This “logging” satisfies which part of the three A’s of security?
  • Accounting
  • Authorization
  • Administration
  • Authentication

 

  1. Which of the following is a way to define permissions or authorizations for objects?
  • Network access servers (NAS)
  • Extensible authentication protocols
  • Access control lists (ACL)
  • Access control entries

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. Fill in the blank: _____ is the idea of describing an entity uniquely.
  • Eligibility
  • Validity
  • Authorization
  • Identification

 

  1. Which of the following passwords is the strongest for authenticating to a system?
  • P@55w0rd!
  • P@ssword!
  • P@w04d!$$L0N6
  • Password!

 

  1. Which of the following are examples of "something you have" for multifactor authentication? Select all that apply.
  • RSA SecureID token
  • One-Time-Password (OTP)
  • Password
  • PING

 

  1. Fill in the blank: In addition to the client being authenticated by the server, certificate authentication also provides _____.
  • server authentication
  • malware protection
  • authorization
  • integrity

 

  1. Which of these are examples of an access control system? Select all that apply.
  • OpenID
  • RADIUS
  • TACACS+
  • OAuth

 

  1. Which of the following are types of one-time-password tokens? Select all that apply.
  • Password-based
  • Counter-based
  • Identity-based
  • Time-based

 

  1. Fill in the blank: Security Keys are more ideal than OTP generators because they are resistant to _____ attacks.
  • password
  • DDoS
  • brute force
  • phishing

 

  1. How might a user protect the data on their mobile device if it is lost or stolen?
  • Refrain from updating apps
  • Remote wipes
  • Reporting the loss to an IT support specialist
  • Keep a spare device with all your data

 

  1. Access control entries can be created for what types of file system objects? Select all that apply.
  • Files
  • APIs
  • Programs
  • Folders

 

  1. Fill in the blank: Authorization is concerned with determining _____ to resources.
  • eligibility
  • access
  • identity
  • validity

 

  1. Fill in the blank: Security Keys utilize a secure challenge-and-response authentication system, which is based on _____.
  • symmetric encryption
  • steganography
  • public key cryptography
  • shared secrets

 

  1. What is used to request access to services in the Kerberos process?
  • Client-to-Server ticket
  • Ticket Granting Ticket
  • TGS session key
  • Client ID

 

  1. What are the benefits of using a Single Sign-On (SSO) authentication service? Select all that apply.
  • One set of credentials for the user
  • Reduce time spent on re-authenticating to services
  • The need for multiple passwords
  • Reduce overhead of password assistance

 

  1. Fill in the blank: In the world of AAA security, “authn” is short for _____.
  • authentication
  • authorization
  • authored
  • authoritarian

 

  1. Fill in the blank: Kerberos enforces strict _____ requirements. Otherwise, authentication will fail.
  • AES
  • strong password
  • LDAP
  • time

 

  1. Consider the following scenario: A company is utilizing Google Business applications for their marketing department. These applications should be able to temporarily access a user's email account to send links for review. Why should the company use Open Authorization (OAuth) in this situation?
  • Gain access through a wireless access point
  • Compatibility with third party apps
  • Administer multiple network devices
  • Utilize a Key Distribution Center server

 

  1. What does a Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) keep track of? Select all that apply.
  • Commands that were run
  • Bandwidth and resource usage
  • Systems users authenticated to
  • Track user authentication

 

  1. What is a client certificate used for?
  • To authenticate the CA
  • To authenticate the client
  • To authenticate the subordinate CA
  • To authenticate the server

 

  1. Consider the following scenario: A network admin wants to use a Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) protocol to allow 5 user accounts to connect company laptops to an access point in the office. These are generic users and will not be updated often. Which of these internal sources would be appropriate to store these accounts in?
  • Active Directory
  • LDAP
  • Flat file
  • SQL database

 

Week 4 – Securing Your Networks

 

Secure Network Architecture

 

  1. Why is normalizing log data important in a centralized logging setup?
  • Log normalizing detects potential attacks.
  • Uniformly formatted logs are easier to store and analyze.
  • The data must be decrypted before sending it to the log server.
  • It’s difficult to analyze abnormal logs.

 

  1. What type of attacks does a flood guard protect against? Check all that apply.
  • DDoS attacks
  • SYN floods
  • Man-in-the-middle attacks
  • Malware infections

 

  1. What does DHCP Snooping protect against?
  • DDoS attacks
  • Rogue DHCP server attacks
  • Brute-force attacks
  • Data theft

 

  1. What does Dynamic ARP Inspection protect against?
  • Malware infections
  • ARP poisoning attacks
  • Rogue DHCP server attacks
  • DDoS attacks

 

  1. What does IP Source Guard protect against?
  • Brute-force attacks
  • Rogue DHCP server attacks
  • IP spoofing attacks
  • DDoS attacks

 

  1. What does EAP-TLS use for mutual authentication of both the server and the client?
  • Digital certificates
  • Usernames and passwords
  • One-time passwords
  • Biometrics

 

  1. Why is it recommended to use both network-based and host-based firewalls? Check all that apply.
  • For protection for mobile devices, like laptops
  • For protection against man-in-the-middle attacks
  • For protection against DDoS attacks
  • For protection against compromised hosts on the same network

 

Wireless Security

 

  1. What are some weaknesses of the WEP scheme? Select all that apply.
  • Its poor key generation methods
  • Its small IV pool size
  • Its use of ASCII characters for passphrases
  • Its use of the RC4 stream cipher

 

  1. What symmetric encryption algorithm does WPA2 use?
  • AES
  • DSA
  • DES
  • RSA

 

  1. How can you reduce the likelihood of WPS brute-force attacks? Check all that apply.
  • Use a very long and complex passphrase.
  • Update firewall rules.
  • Implement lockout periods for incorrect attempts.
  • Disable WPS.

 

  1. Select the most secure WiFi security configuration from below:
  • WPA enterprise
  • WPA2 personal
  • WEP 128 bit
  • WPA personal
  • None
  • WPA2 enterprise

 

  1. What process authenticates clients to a network?
  • WPA2
  • HMAC-SHA1
  • TKIP
  • Four-way handshake

 

Network Monitoring

 

  1. What does tcpdump do? Select all that apply.
  • Analyzes packets and provides a textual analysis
  • Captures packets
  • Generates packets
  • Encrypts your packets

 

  1. What does wireshark do differently from tcpdump? Check all that apply.
  • It can capture packets and analyze them.
  • It understands more application-level protocols.
  • It has a graphical interface.
  • It can write packet captures to a file.

 

  1. What factors should you consider when designing an IDS installation? Check all that apply.
  • Internet connection speed
  • Traffic bandwidth
  • OS types in use
  • Storage capacity

 

  1. What is the difference between an Intrusion Detection System and an Intrusion Prevention System?
  • An IDS can actively block attack traffic, while an IPS can only alert on detected attack traffic.
  • An IDS can alert on detected attack traffic, but an IPS can actively block attack traffic.
  • An IDS can detect malware activity on a network, but an IPS can’t
  • They are the same thing.

 

  1. What factors would limit your ability to capture packets? Check all that apply.
  • Network interface not being in promiscuous or monitor mode
  • Anti-malware software
  • Encryption
  • Access to the traffic in question

 

Securing Your Networks

  1. What does tcpdump do?
  • Handles packet injection
  • Brute forces password databases
  • Generates DDoS attack traffic
  • Performs packet capture and analysis

 

  1. What can protect your network from DoS attacks?
  • DHCP Snooping
  • Dynamic ARP Inspection
  • Flood Guard
  • IP Source Guard

 

  1. What occurs after a Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) first detects an attack?
  • Triggers alerts
  • Shuts down
  • Blocks traffic
  • Disables network access

 

  1. What does a Network Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS) do when it detects an attack?
  • It blocks the traffic.
  • It does nothing.
  • It triggers an alert.
  • It attacks back.

 

  1. How do you protect against rogue DHCP server attacks?
  • IP Source Guard
  • Flood Guard
  • Dynamic ARP Inspection
  • DHCP Snooping

 

  1. What underlying symmetric encryption cipher does WEP use?
  • RSA
  • AES
  • RC4
  • DES

 

  1. What traffic would an implicit deny firewall rule block?
  • Outbound traffic only
  • Nothing unless blocked
  • Everything that is not explicitly permitted or allowed
  • Inbound traffic only

 

  1. What allows you to take all packets from a specified port, port range, or an entire VLAN and mirror the packets to a specified switch port?
  • DHCP Snooping
  • Promiscuous Mode
  • Network hub
  • Port Mirroring

 

  1. What kind of attack does IP Source Guard (IPSG) protect against?
  • IP Spoofing attacks
  • DoS attacks
  • ARP Man-in-the-middle attacks
  • Rogue DHCP Server attacks

 

  1. What can be configured to allow secure remote connections to web applications without requiring a VPN?
  • Reverse proxy
  • RC4
  • NIDS
  • Web browser

 

Week 5 – Defense in Depth

 

What is a class of vulnerabilities that are unknown before they are exploited?

  • ACLs
    • Attack Surfaces
    • Attack Vectors
  • Zero-day

 

Securely storing a recovery or backup encryption key is referred to as _______.

  • Key encryption
    • Key backup
    • Key obfuscation
  • Key escrow

 

System Hardening

 

  1. What is an attack vector?
  • The classification of attack type
  • The direction an attack is going in
  • A mechanism by which an attacker can interact with your network or systems
  • The severity of the attack

 

  1. Disabling unnecessary components serves which purposes? Check all that apply.
  • Closing attack vectors
  • Increasing performance
  • Making a system harder to use
  • Reducing the attack surface

 

  1. What's an attack surface?

 

  • The total scope of an attack
  • The payload of the attack
  • The combined sum of all attack vectors in a system or network
  • The target or victim of an attack

 

  1. A good defense in depth strategy would involve deploying which firewalls?
  • No firewalls
  • Both host-based and network-based firewalls
  • Network-based firewalls only
  • Host-based firewalls only

 

  1. Using a bastion host allows for which of the following? Select all that apply.
  • Enforcing stricter security measures
  • Having more detailed monitoring and logging
  • Applying more restrictive firewall rules
  • Running a wide variety of software securely

 

  1. What benefits does centralized logging provide? Check all that apply.
  • It blocks malware infections.
  • It prevents database theft.
  • It allows for easier logs analysis.
  • It helps secure logs from tampering or destruction.

 

  1. What are some of the shortcomings of antivirus software today? Check all that apply.
  • It can’t protect against unknown threats.
  • It only detects malware, but doesn’t protect against it.
  • It’s very expensive.
  • It only protects against viruses.

 

  1. How is binary whitelisting a better option than antivirus software?
  • It can block unknown or emerging threats.
  • It has less performance impact.
  • It’s cheaper.
  • It’s not better. It’s actually terrible.

 

  1. What does full-disk encryption protect against? Check all that apply.
  • Data theft
  • Malware infections
  • Tampering with system files
  • IP spoofing attacks

 

  1. What's the purpose of escrowing a disk encryption key?
  • Providing data integrity
  • Preventing data theft
  • Performing data recovery
  • Protecting against unauthorized access

 

Application Hardening

 

  1. Why is it important to keep software up-to-date?
  • To ensure access to the latest features
  • To ensure compatibility with other systems
  • To address any security vulnerabilities discovered
  • It’s not important.

 

  1. What types of software are typically blacklisted? Select all that apply.
  • Word processors
  • Web browsers
  • Video games
  • File Sharing software

 

  1. What does applying software patches protect against?
  • Data tampering
  • MITM attacks
  • Undiscovered vulnerabilities & newly found vulnerabilities
  • Suspicious network traffic.

 

  1. What should be considered when implementing software policies and guidelines?
  • The local weather forecast
  • Your reputation within the company
  • The company’s technical debt
  • What the users need in order to do their jobs

 

  1. What is one way to check whether or not a website can be trusted?
  • The company logo
  • The quality of pictures on the website
  • Check for SSL certificates
  • The webpage design

 

Defense in Depth

 

  1. A hacker gained access to a network through malicious email attachments. Which one of these is important when talking about methods that allow a hacker to gain this access?
  • A 0-day
  • An attack surface
  • An ACL
  • An attack vector

 

  1. Which of these host-based firewall rules help to permit network access from a Virtual Private Network (VPN) subnet?
  • Secure Shell (SSH)
  • Group Policy Objects (GPOs)
  • Access Control Lists (ACLs)
  • Active Directory

 

  1. Having detailed logging serves which of the following purposes? Select all that apply.
  • Data protection
  • Event reconstruction
  • Auditing
  • Vulnerability detection

 

  1. What model does an antivirus software operate off of?
  • Greylist
  • Secure list
  • Blacklist
  • Whitelist

 

  1. If a full disk encryption (FDE) password is forgotten, what can be incorporated to securely store the encryption key to unlock the disk?
  • Secure boot
  • Application hardening
  • Key escrow
  • Application policies

 

  1. What does applying software patches protect against? Select all that apply.
  • Undiscovered vulnerabilities
  • Newly found vulnerabilities
  • MITM attacks
  • Data tampering

 

  1. Besides software, what other things will also need patches? Select all that apply.
  • Infrastructure firmware
  • Hardware
  • Operating systems
  • NFC tags

 

  1. What are the two primary purposes of application software policies? Select all that apply.
  • To help educate users on how to use software more securely
  • To use a database of signatures to identify malware
  • To define boundaries of what applications are permitted
  • To take log data and convert it into different formats

 

  1. What is a defining characteristic of a defense-in-depth strategy to IT security?
  • Multiple overlapping layers of defense
  • Encryption
  • Confidentiality
  • Strong passwords

 

  1. Why is it important to disable unnecessary components of software and systems?
  • Less complexity means less work.
  • Less complexity means less expensive.
  • Less complexity means less time required.
  • Less complexity means less vulnerability.

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. What are Bastion hosts?
  • A VPN subnet
  • Users that have the ability to change firewall rules and configurations.
  • VLANs
  • Servers that are specifically hardened and minimized to reduce what’s permitted to run on them.

 

  1. Which of these plays an important role in keeping attack traffic off your systems and helps to protect users? Select all that apply.
  • Multiple Attack Vectors
  • Full disk encryption (FDE)
  • Antimalware measures
  • Antivirus software

 

  1. Why is it risky if you wanted to make an exception to the application policy to allow file sharing software?
  • The software can normalize log data
  • The software could be infected with malware
  • The software could disable full disk encryption (FDE)
  • The software can shrink attack vectors

 

  1. Ideally, an attack surface is ___
  • open and defended.
  • frequently updated.
  • as large as possible.
  • as small as possible.

 

  1. A core authentication server is exposed to the internet and is connected to sensitive services. What are some measures you can take to secure the server and prevent it from getting compromised by a hacker? Select all that apply.
  • Patch management
  • Access Control Lists (ACLs)
  • Designate as a bastion host
  • Secure firewall

 

  1. What are the two main issues with antivirus software? Select all that apply.
  • They depend on antivirus signatures distributed by the antivirus software vendor.
  • There are no issues with antivirus software.
  • They depend on the IT support professional to discover new malware and write new signatures.
  • They depend on the antivirus vendor discovering new malware and writing new signatures for newly discovered threats.

 

  1. What does full-disk encryption protect against? Select all that apply.
  • Data theft
  • Data tampering
  • Malware
  • Eavesdropping

 

  1. A hacker exploited a bug in the software and triggered unintended behavior which led to the system being compromised by running vulnerable software. Which of these helps to fix these types of vulnerabilities?
  • Application policies
  • Implicit deny
  • Software patch management
  • Log analysis

 

  1. How can software management tools like Microsoft SCCM help an IT professional manage a fleet of systems? Select all that apply
  • Detect and prevent malware on managed devices
  • Analyze installed software across multiple computers
  • Confirm update installation
  • Force update installation after a specified deadline

 

  1. While antivirus software operates using a ______, binary whitelisting software uses a whitelist instead.
  • Secure list
  • Blacklist
  • Greylist
  • Whitelist

 

  1. What is the combined sum of all attack vectors in a corporate network?
  • The antivirus software
  • The attack surface
  • The Access Control List (ACL)
  • The risk

 

  1. When looking at aggregated logs, you are seeing a large percentage of Windows hosts connecting to an Internet Protocol (IP) address outside the network in a foreign country. Why might this be worth investigating more closely?
  • It can indicate what software is on the binary whitelist
  • It can indicate ACLs are not configured correctly
  • It can indicate a malware infection
  • It can indicate log normalization

 

  1. What can provide resilience against data theft, and can prevent an attacker from stealing confidential information from a hard drive that was stolen?
  • OS upgrades
  • Software patch management
  • Key escrow
  • Full disk encryption (FDE)

 

  1. When installing updates on critical infrastructure, it’s important to be what?
  • Calm
  • Careful
  • Patient
  • Fast

 

  1. A network security analyst received an alert about a potential malware threat on a user’s computer. What can the analyst review to get detailed information about this compromise? Select all that apply.
  • Full disk encryption (FDE)
  • Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system
  • Logs
  • Binary whitelisting software

 

  1. Which of the following are potential attack vectors? Select all that apply
  • Passwords
  • Network protocols
  • Email attachments
  • Network interfaces

 

  1. What is the best way to avoid personal, one-off software installation requests?
  • A strict no-installation policy
  • A clear application whitelist policy
  • An application honor code policy
  • An accept-all application policy

 

  1. What is the purpose of installing updates on your computer? Select all that apply.
  • Updating improves performance and stability
  • Updating helps block all unwanted traffic
  • Updating addresses security vulnerabilities
  • Updating adds new features

 

Week 6 – Creating a Company Culture for Security

 

Risk in the Workplace

 

  1. What are some examples of security goals that you may have for an organization? Check all that apply.
  • To protect customer data from unauthorized access
  • To prevent unauthorized access to customer credentials
  • To implement a strong password policy
  • To deploy an Intrusion Prevention System

 

  1. Which of these would you consider high-value targets for a potential attacker? Check all that apply.
  • Authentication databases
  • Customer credit card information
  • Logging server
  • Networked printers

 

  1. What's the purpose of a vulnerability scanner?
  • It protects your network from malware.
  • It blocks malicious traffic from entering your network.
  • It detects vulnerabilities on your network and systems.
  • It fixes vulnerabilities on systems.

 

  1. What are some restrictions that should apply to sensitive and confidential data? Check all that apply.
  • It can be transferred via email.
  • It can be accessed and stored on personal devices.
  • It can be accessed and stored on personal devices.
  • It can be stored on encrypted media only.

 

  1. What's a privacy policy designed to guard against?
  • Eavesdropping on communications
  • Misuse or abuse of sensitive data
  • Attackers stealing customer data
  • Denial-of-service attacks

 

Users

 

  1. Which of the following are actions and/or steps that can be taken to avoid leaks and disclosures when handling sensitive data?
  • Giving the employees the right tools to get their work done without compromising security.
  • Understanding what employees need to do to accomplish their jobs.
  • Giving unrestricted access to the employees handling sensitive data
  • Allowing employees to write their passwords on a post-it note

 

  1. When evaluating the services of a vendor company, which of the following can be used to assess their security capabilities? Check all that apply.
  • Ask the vendor to complete a questionnaire
  • Assume that they’re using industry-standard solutions
  • Request full access to the vendor systems to perform an assessment
  • Ask them to provide any penetration testing or security assessment reports

 

  1. What is the goal of mandatory IT security training for an organization? Check all that apply.
  • To punish employees with poor security practices
  • To educate employees on how to stay secure
  • To build a culture that prioritizes security
  • To avoid the need for a security team

 

  1. Which of the following are necessary in the organization to create a culture that makes security a priority? Select all that apply.
  • Reinforce and reward behaviors that boost the security of the organization
  • A working environment that encourages people to speak up.
  • Punish employees every time they make poor security practices
  • Designated communication channels

 

  1. A long and complex password requirement is designed to protect against _________.
  • lazy users
  • employees memory lost
  • brute force attacks
  • password reuse

 

Incident Handling

 

  1. In order to properly handle a security incident, what is the first thing that needs to happen?
  • Recover from the incident
  • Remove or eradicate the incident
  • Contain the incident
  • Detect the incident

 

  1. After a security incident, how can an organization be protected against a similar incident occurring again in the future?
  • Update antivirus definitions.
  • Cross your fingers and hope for the best!
  • Change all account passwords.
  • Conduct a post-incident analysis.

 

  1. In order to preserve the integrity of any forensic evidence, what should be done before analyzing a hard drive that has been compromised by a security attack?
  • Install an antivirus software
  • Format the hard drive
  • Make a virtual copy or an image of the hard drive
  • Connect the hard drive to a computer

 

  1. Which of the following are protection that can be used on mobile devices?
  • Screen lock
  • Use the device settings to allow or deny apps access to the devices features
  • Always have bluetooth on
  • Storage encryption

 

  1. In order to prevent further damage, the breach should be ________.
  • contained
  • recovered
  • audited
  • ignored

 

Creating a Company Culture for Security

 

  1. In the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), which of these goals would benefit from encrypted data transmission?
  • Implementing strong access control measures
  • Maintaining a vulnerability management program
  • Monitoring and testing networks regularly
  • Protecting cardholder data

 

  1. What tools can be used to discover vulnerabilities or dangerous misconfigurations in systems and networks?
  • Vulnerability scanners
  • Bastion hosts
  • Firewalls
  • Antimalware software

 

  1. _____ is the practice of attempting to break into a system or network for the purpose of verifying the systems in place.
  • Network probing
  • Penetration testing
  • Security assessment
  • Vulnerability scanning

 

  1. Which of the following should be part of an access data request? Select all that apply.
  • Specify exact data needed
  • Provide justification
  • Time limit
  • A second signature

 

  1. Which of the following is recommended to secure authentication?
  • Password rotation
  • Strong encryption
  • 2-factor authentication
  • Vulnerability scanning

 

  1. When thinking about credential theft, what is one of the greatest workplace cybersecurity risks?
  • Keylogging
  • Credential stealing text messages
  • Phishing emails
  • Blackmail

 

  1. Which of the following actions should be included when conducting a vendor risk review? Select all that apply.
  • Ask the vendor for a cost comparison
  • Talk to the vendor’s employees
  • Ask the vendor to fill out a security questionnaire
  • Test the vendor’s hardware or software

 

  1. What are some things that are generally included on a third party security assessment report? Select all that apply
  • User reviews
  • Third party security audit results
  • Penetration testing results
  • Customer feedback scores

 

  1. Management wants to build a culture where employees keep security in mind. Employees should be able to access information freely and provide feedback or suggestions without worry. Which of these are great ideas for this type of culture? Select all that apply.
  • Designated mailing list
  • Posters promoting good security behavior
  • Desktop monitoring software
  • Bring your own device

 

  1. Once the scope of the incident is determined, the next step would be _____.
  • escalation
  • containment
  • documentation
  • remediation

 

Shuffle Q/A

 

  1. In the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), what are the requirements for the “regularly monitor and test networks” objective? Select all that apply
  • Develop and maintain secure systems and applications
  • Regularly test security systems and processes
  • Track and monitor all access to network resources and cardholder data
  • Encrypt the transmission of cardholder data across open public networks

 

  1. What characteristics are used to assess the severity of found vulnerabilities? Select all that apply.
  • Remotely exploitable or not
  • Use of encryption or not
  • Type of access gained
  • Chance of exploitation

 

  1. Which of the following devices are considered a risk when storing confidential information?

 

Select all that apply.

  • Encrypted portable hard drives
  • Limited access file shares
  • CD drives
  • USB sticks

 

  1. Which of the following are ways to prevent email phishing attacks against user passwords? Select all that apply.
  • User education
  • Virtual private network
  • Cloud email
  • Spam filters

 

  1. When contracting services from a third party, what risk is the organization exposed to?
  • Zero-day vulnerabilities
  • Trusting the third party’s security
  • Malware attacks
  • DDoS attacks

 

  1. Periodic mandatory security training courses can be given to employees in what way? Select all that apply.
  • Brief quiz
  • One-on-one interviews
  • Interoffice memos
  • Short video

 

  1. How can events be reconstructed after an incident?
  • By reviewing and analyzing logs
  • By interviewing the people involved
  • By doing analysis of forensic malware
  • By replaying security video footage

 

  1. What is the first step in performing a security risk assessment?
  • Logs analysis
  • Threat modeling
  • Vulnerability scanning
  • Penetration testing

 

  1. What is penetration testing?
  • Giving network access to a bad actor for the purposes of testing.
  • Assessing computers, computer systems, networks, or applications for weaknesses.
  • Attempting to break into a system or network for the purpose of verifying the systems in place.
  • Attempting to gather credentials with phishing emails.

 

  1. Consider the following scenario:

 

A co-worker needs to share a sensitive file with you, but it is too large to send via an encrypted email. The co-worker works out of a remote office. You work at headquarters. Which of these options would most likely be approved by the company’s security policies? Select all that apply.

  • Upload to company secure cloud storage
  • Upload to a personal OneDrive
  • Put on a company file server that you both have access to
  • Upload to a personal Google drive

 

  1. Google provides free _____, which is a good starting point when assessing third-party vendors.
  • cloud storage
  • vendor security assessment questionnaires
  • mobile phone services
  • business apps

 

  1. What are the first two steps of incident handling and response?
  • Incident eradication or removal
  • Incident recovery
  • Incident detection
  • Incident containment

 

  1. When working on a laptop in a public area, always _____ when getting up to use the restroom.
  • Ask a coworker to watch the laptop
  • Set up a VPN
  • Lock the screen
  • Ask permission to leave

 

  1. What is a quick way of evaluating a third party's security?
  • A comprehensive penetration testing review
  • A security assessment questionnaire
  • A signed contract
  • A manual evaluation of all security systems

 

  1. When handling credit card payments, the organization needs to adhere to the _____.
  • ISO
  • HIPAA
  • PCI DSS
  • IEEE

 

  1. What characteristics are used to assess the severity of found vulnerabilities? Select all that apply.
  • Remotely exploitable or not
  • Type of access gained
  • Chance of exploitation
  • Use of encryption or not

 

  1. Which of the following are bad security habits commonly seen amongst employees in the workplace? Select all that apply.
  • Password on a post-it note
  • Log out of website session
  • Leave laptop logged in and unattended
  • Lock desktop screen

 

  1. Which of the following are examples of security tools that can scan computer systems and networks for vulnerabilities? Select all that apply.
  • Wireshark
  • Nessus
  • OpenVAS
  • Qualys

 

  1. Consider the following scenario:

 

Your company wants to establish good privacy practices in the workplace so that employee and customer data is properly protected. Well-established and defined privacy policies are in place, but they also need to be enforced. What are some ways to enforce these privacy policies? Select all that apply.

  • Print customer information
  • Audit access logs
  • Apply the principle of least privilege
  • VPN connection

 

  1. Third-party services that require equipment on-site may require a company to do which of the following? Select all that apply.
  • Unrestricted access to the network
  • Provide additional monitoring via a firewall or agentless solution
  • Provide remote access to third-party service provider
  • Evaluate hardware in the lab first

 

  1. What are some behaviors to be encouraged in order to build a security-conscious culture? Select all that apply.
  • Locking your screen
  • Shaming people who haven’t done a good job of ensuring their company’s security
  • Checking website URLs when authenticating
  • Asking security-related questions

 

Creating/inspecting key pair, encrypting/decrypting and sign/verify using OpenSSL

 

Hands-on with Hashing

 

Introduction to tcpdump


 


More certification answers our continuously expanding library in CertificationAnswers.com

Add to cart
Size
4.02 MB
Length
254 pages

Ratings

4.0
(1 rating)
5 stars
0%
4 stars
100%
3 stars
0%
2 stars
0%
1 star
0%
€30

Google IT Support Professional Certificate Answers

1 rating
Add to cart